1. In August 2025, Washington justified a 25% levy on Indian imports mainly by pointing to what?
Answer: C. The levy was tied to the proposed Russia Sanctions Act 2025, which targets India's ongoing energy and defence trade with Russia, and it also pushed India to ease barriers facing American goods.
2. To press its rights under the Indus Waters Treaty against Pakistan, India brought back which hydropower project?
Answer: A. Sawalkote is a 1,856 MW scheme in Jammu & Kashmir first conceived in the 1980s. India revived it as a strategic step to make use of its entitlement on the western rivers.
3. The NISAR satellite, built by NASA and ISRO, is notable mainly for carrying what?
Answer: E. NISAR combines an L-band radar from NASA with an S-band radar from ISRO, letting it track changes on the Earth's surface for climate and disaster-management purposes.
4. Which change did the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 bring for directors of cooperative banks?
Answer: B. The law raised the maximum term of cooperative bank directors to 10 years, bringing governance in line with the 97th Constitutional Amendment. Chairpersons are not covered by this extension.
5. What led Indian Overseas Bank to go back to its earlier internet banking portal in July 2025?
Answer: D. Users of the new platform met login failures and patchy service, so the bank rolled back to the old portal to keep customer service running without interruption.
6. Which feature marks the revised Enhanced Surveillance Mechanism (ESM) that SEBI framed for small-cap stocks?
Answer: E. Under the revised framework, firms showing positive short-term price momentum along with very high or negative price-to-earnings ratios are picked for tighter trading curbs.
7. Tenant farmers can now claim PMFBY crop insurance and MSP benefits on what basis?
Answer: B. The Union Agriculture Minister said tenants may access the PMFBY and MSP schemes when the landowner authorises it and the state government permits it.
8. Drone-based sowing in the waterlogged Pokkali paddy fields of Kerala is mainly useful because it does what?
Answer: D. Drones scattered pre-germinated seeds evenly across Pokkali fields, which cut the time needed and helped crops establish better, lifting yields.
9. AI-driven climate advisories for smallholder farmers in India were rolled out by which body?
Answer: A. ICRISAT started an AI-powered agromet advisory service under Monsoon Mission III, which reaches farmers through local-language WhatsApp bots to support climate-resilient farming.
10. What is SusMafia's 'Climate-Tech Opportunity Map' meant to do?
Answer: C. The map lists 25 high-impact problems in areas such as energy, water and agriculture, to guide climate-tech innovation and startup growth in India.
11. Who is the Patron-in-Chief of NALSA, the body discussed in the India Justice Report 2025?
Answer: B. The Chief Justice of India is NALSA's Patron-in-Chief.
12. Which shipyard built the Project-17A frigate Himgiri?
Answer: B. Himgiri was made by GRSE, Kolkata; Udaygiri came from MDL.
13. Under which scheme was Gujarat described as a front-runner in mangrove restoration, with over 19,000 ha restored?
Answer: A. Gujarat restored over 19,000 ha in two years as MISHTI front-runner.
14. Which safety rating does Kavach 4.0 carry, as noted in the notes on the indigenous train protection system?
Answer: C. Kavach 4.0 is designed to Safety Integrity Level 4, the highest global rating.
15. Which bank began charging payment aggregators for UPI processing from 1 August 2025?
Answer: B. ICICI Bank started the charge on 1 August 2025.
16. In 2025 the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas introduced ‘Apna Ghar’. What is it chiefly meant to deliver?
Answer: A. Apna Ghar creates decent places for long-distance truckers to rest along highways, so that drivers are less tired and roads become safer.
17. An ISRO inquiry traced the loss of the PSLV-C61/EOS-09 mission to what cause?
Answer: B. Liftoff and the early stages performed normally, but the third stage developed a fault, and that is what ended the mission.
18. When ISRO put the American BlueBird satellite into orbit using LVM3, what did this mainly signify?
Answer: C. Carrying a US-built payload shows the two countries keep working together in space and that India is a credible commercial launch provider worldwide.
19. The second phase of PM SVANidhi brought in which new feature?
Answer: D. To push digital financial inclusion, the revamped scheme gives vendors UPI-linked credit cards carrying a ₹30,000 limit.
20. RBI’s ‘MuleHunter’ platform is used for what?
Answer: E. Built by the RBI Innovation Hub, MuleHunter applies AI to spot mule accounts, helping banks stop and prevent fraud.
21. SEBI’s proposed IPO reforms would cut the minimum public dilution to what level for firms valued above ₹1 trillion?
Answer: A. Very large companies could offer just 2.5% to the public rather than the previous 5%, which makes listing easier for them.
22. What reason lies behind ICICI Bank starting to levy charges on payment aggregators for UPI transactions?
Answer: B. Because UPI payments are free for users, banks such as ICICI bill aggregators to cover what it costs to run and process them.
23. NPCI’s revised UPI rules of August 2025 cap balance enquiries at how many per day for each app?
Answer: C. Under the updated NPCI norms a person may look up their account balance up to fifty times a day on any single UPI app.
24. By what proportion can AI-driven irrigation lower water consumption in Indian farming?
Answer: D. Smart irrigation powered by AI can bring water use down by as much as 80% and also lift crop yields.
25. Which of these is a key obstacle to bringing AI into Indian agriculture?
Answer: E. A big hurdle is that numerous farmers lack the digital skills to use or even know about AI-based tools.
26. India's Ramsar COP15 resolution on sustainable lifestyles builds on which UN Environment Assembly resolution?
Answer: B. The article ties India's text to UNEA Resolution 6/8 of 2024, titled Promoting Sustainable Lifestyles.
27. Which statement about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 is correct?
Answer: D. Banks are authorised to determine statutory auditor remuneration; the other options contradict the Act.
28. Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the Apna Ghar initiative for truck drivers?
Answer: C. Apna Ghar is run under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
29. In which stage did the anomaly occur in the PSLV-C61/EOS-09 mission, as per the notes?
Answer: D. Performance was normal until the second stage; the third-stage anomaly caused failure.
30. Which ISRO rocket will carry the BlueBird Block 2 satellite?
Answer: B. The notes say the satellite will fly on LVM3, formerly GSLV Mk III.
31. Which engine is slated to power the upgraded LVM3 rocket expected to fly by 2027?
Answer: C. The improved LVM3 gets the SE2000 semi-cryogenic engine, which burns refined kerosene (RP-1) with liquid oxygen to give 200 tonnes of thrust and takes the place of the L110 stage.
32. Under Mission Vatsalya, the National Child Survey is chiefly meant for what?
Answer: A. MoSPI and MoWCD run the survey to identify children in need and those in conflict with the law, and the resulting Child Index will support evidence-based welfare policy.
33. India's new Climate Finance Taxonomy is designed to guard against which problem?
Answer: E. Strict eligibility norms and verification requirements in the taxonomy are meant to ensure that investments labelled as climate-friendly are truly aligned with climate goals.
34. Which is a central feature of the Mission Vatsalya Portal?
Answer: B. The portal brings together services such as Khoya-Paya and TrackChild, giving several stakeholders access and real-time case monitoring for better coordination of child protection work.
35. After getting SEBI's nod, which type of mutual fund products will Choice AMC offer first?
Answer: D. Choice AMC will roll out in phases, beginning with passive products like index funds and exchange-traded funds so that retail investors get affordable, diversified access.
36. Quant Mutual Fund's new specialised investment fund (SIF) will mainly follow which approach?
Answer: E. The QSIF Equity Long-Short Fund goes long on assets expected to rise and short on those expected to fall, aiming for risk-adjusted returns.
37. For what reason did the RBI clear the merger of New India Co-operative Bank into Saraswat Bank?
Answer: B. New India Co-operative Bank was hit by a Rs 122 crore fraud, and the RBI allowed the voluntary merger with Saraswat Bank to protect depositors and stabilise the business.
38. Which new digital banking feature has India Post Payments Bank introduced?
Answer: D. IPPB brought in India's first large-scale banking service that verifies customers through Aadhaar's facial recognition, widening inclusion and access.
39. The newly introduced bio-fortified potatoes are meant to tackle a shortage of which nutrient?
Answer: A. These potatoes are enriched with iron, aimed at easing iron deficiency and the anaemia that follows it, particularly among vulnerable groups.
40. In what main way are agri-influencers helping rural India develop?
Answer: C. They post farming methods and practices as digital content in local languages, which changes how people see agriculture and spreads learning at the grassroots.
41. What share of tariff lines does EFTA offer India, covering 99.6% of India's exports?
Answer: D. EFTA offers 92.2% tariff lines covering 99.6% of India's exports; India offers 82.7% tariff lines.
42. The first four projects include census preparedness training. For which group of countries is it meant?
Answer: B. Census preparedness is planned for Caribbean countries such as Belize, Barbados, Suriname and Trinidad and Tobago, with the UN Population Fund.
43. Which factor is named as the greatest danger to the silver-backed chevrotain?
Answer: D. Predators also take it, but human hunting, especially snares, is described as the greatest danger.
44. Early breeding stock for the Gangtok red panda programme came partly from which zoo outside India?
Answer: C. Initial animals came from Rotterdam Zoo and the Darjeeling zoo, later supplemented with wild-origin animals.
45. Which engine will power the semi-cryogenic stage planned for the upgraded LVM3?
Answer: B. The SE2000 semi-cryogenic engine is under testing and gives 200 tonnes of thrust.
46. What is the main aim of *Matri Van*, the new initiative started in Gurugram?
Answer: A. Matri Van is about reviving the damaged Aravalli Hills by planting native species and adding nature-friendly facilities that bring biodiversity back.
47. The *Matri Van* initiative forms part of which wider campaign?
Answer: B. It sits under the larger Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam drive, which encourages planting trees and spreading environmental awareness.
48. NITI Aayog’s India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) 2024 placed which state or UT at the top?
Answer: C. Delhi took first position in IEMI 2024, judged on how well it did in EV uptake, charging networks and its innovation environment.
49. In Counterpoint Research’s Global AI City Index 2025, which Indian city came out best?
Answer: D. Bengaluru stood 26th in the world and led Indian cities, thanks to its research base, startups and data centres.
50. In the Indian setting, what is meant by *Phygital Banking*?
Answer: E. The idea merges brick-and-mortar outlets like branches and ATMs with apps and UPI so customers get a smooth experience across both.
51. Under SEBI’s turnover-linked proposal, how is the RPT materiality threshold set for companies whose turnover exceeds ₹40,000 crore?
Answer: A. The new related-party framework lightens compliance while keeping oversight; for the biggest firms the limit works as a capped threshold.
52. What led IRDAI to penalise Policybazaar Insurance Brokers with a ₹5 crore fine in 2025?
Answer: B. The broker was sanctioned for several rule breaches, among them biased advertising, late premium remittance and outsourcing lapses.
53. Which segment of India’s pesticide market is expanding the quickest because of mechanisation and labour constraints?
Answer: C. Costly labour and the push for mechanised weeding are pushing up herbicide consumption faster than other categories.
54. India reached its E20 ethanol blending goal in which period?
Answer: D. The country hit 20% ethanol blending before the 2025-26 schedule, which cuts pollution and dependence on imported fuel.
55. Which of the following is a significant worry linked to heavy ethanol blending in vehicles?
Answer: E. Since ethanol absorbs water, moisture builds up inside, which can corrode parts, clog the fuel system and wear down components.
56. Which combination correctly describes the August 2025 PMKSY approval?
Answer: B. Outlay was Rs 6,520 crore, with 50 irradiation units and 100 NABL-accredited labs.
57. Under Hong Kong's Stablecoins Ordinance, which activity is specifically banned for retail customers?
Answer: B. The ordinance bans unlicensed stablecoin offerings to retail investors and requires HKMA approval for issuers.
58. Which of these countries took part in the festival as a BIMSTEC member?
Answer: D. Artists came from India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand, the seven BIMSTEC members.
59. Legal protection of registered landraces is to be facilitated under which law?
Answer: D. The SOP states that protection will be facilitated under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act.
60. What demand growth did the IEA project for India in 2026?
Answer: C. India's electricity demand is projected to grow 4% in 2025 and 6.6% in 2026.
61. Going by the recent Uttarkashi incident, what rainfall intensity defines a cloudburst?
Answer: C. A cloudburst means extreme rain of 100-250 mm per hour falling over a small 1 sq km patch, and it frequently triggers flash floods and landslides.
62. Moldova has joined the International Solar Alliance. Which number member is it?
Answer: A. Moldova became the ISA's 107th member; the alliance is a worldwide initiative headed by India and France to promote solar power.
63. Which two government bodies jointly issued the list of Ayurveda Aahara products under the 2022 regulations?
Answer: E. The FSSAI along with the Ministry of Ayush published the roster of approved Ayurvedic food items under the Ayurveda Aahara rules of 2022.
64. At what speed range, in Mach, does the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile travel?
Answer: B. BrahMos cruises at Mach 2.8 to 3.0 with a reach of roughly 290 km, and it was built jointly by India and Russia.
65. Bank of Baroda's bob FxOne platform mainly offers what advantage?
Answer: D. bob FxOne is a digital foreign-exchange platform where MSMEs and corporates can trade in real time and use tools to manage currency risk.
66. What big change has the RBI made for Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVAs)?
Answer: E. Authorized Dealer banks can now open SRVAs without seeking prior permission, a step meant to encourage international trade settled in rupees.
67. The purpose of the new PFRDA CONNECT website is chiefly to do what?
Answer: B. PFRDA CONNECT improves openness and the user experience in India's pension system and fits with Digital India standards.
68. What is the aim of the Farmers' Library in Ludhiana, set up under a NABARD-funded project?
Answer: D. The library gives access to scientific and sustainable dairy farming knowledge, helping farmers become more productive.
69. The Agentic AI tool released by TraceX helps Indian exporters meet which upcoming rule?
Answer: A. The tool automates compliance work for exporters facing the EU's 2025 Deforestation Regulation, supporting sustainability and traceability of goods.
70. Which is one main objective of the rural financial literacy programmes run jointly by RBI and NABARD?
Answer: C. The two institutions run awareness drives to improve digital financial skills and stop rural households from sinking into too much debt.
71. Before this line, how much railway track did Mizoram have, and where did it run?
Answer: D. Mizoram had only a 1.5 km metre-gauge line from Bairabi towards Silchar in Assam.
72. Under which legal schedule is the Nilgiri tahr protected in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
Answer: A. The tahr, listed Endangered by the IUCN, is covered under Schedule-I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
73. Which body issued a 10-point advisory in August 2025 on gender disparity in organ allocation?
Answer: C. The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) issued the advisory, granting extra points to women on waiting lists.
74. As per IMD, a cloudburst means rainfall above what rate?
Answer: C. IMD's cut-off is more than 100 mm per hour.
75. Which country became the 107th member of the International Solar Alliance?
Answer: A. Moldova's accession made it the 107th ISA member.
76. The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 does away with which existing law?
Answer: A. The bill repeals the 1925 colonial statute and brings India’s sea trade legislation in step with global conventions.
77. What do the Hague–Visby Rules, taken up through the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025, deal with?
Answer: B. These international rules set a common standard for bills of lading and spell out what carriers owe and are liable for when shipping cargo.
78. What record-low price did Green Ammonia hit under the SIGHT Scheme?
Answer: C. SECI’s first Mode-2A auction under SIGHT discovered Green Ammonia at ₹55.75/kg, a new low that backs the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
79. Which 2024 Bill streamlined India’s maritime law by shrinking 561 sections into 16 parts and 325 clauses?
Answer: D. It replaces the 1958 Merchant Shipping Act with a leaner framework that matches global practice.
80. As of August 2025, at what level does the RBI’s repo rate stand?
Answer: E. The Monetary Policy Committee left the repo rate untouched at 5.5% in August 2025, favouring stability while global uncertainty persists even though inflation is low.
81. The RBI continues to treat WACR as its operating target for monetary policy. What does the abbreviation stand for?
Answer: A. WACR is the mean rate on overnight unsecured lending between banks, and it mirrors the central bank’s liquidity position.
82. Treasury Bills can now be bought through a SIP facility on which RBI platform?
Answer: B. Retail Direct lets small investors put in a fixed amount at regular intervals into T-bills, much like a mutual fund SIP.
83. The RBI’s revised co-lending norms require each regulated entity to hold at least what share of every loan?
Answer: C. Every regulated lender in a co-lending tie-up must keep a minimum of ten percent of each loan on its books so that risk is shared.
84. What is the purpose of Axis Bank’s ‘Lock FD’ feature?
Answer: D. Lock FD blocks closing a deposit early through online channels, so a customer must go to a branch, which guards against fraud.
85. To which version did Punjab’s cooperative banks recently move their Core Banking Solution?
Answer: E. Punjab is the first state to shift its cooperative banks from Finacle 7 to Finacle 10, improving speed, security and rural service.
86. Who carried out the initial excavations at Sarnath in 1834-36?
Answer: D. Sir Alexander Cunningham led the first excavations in 1834-36.
87. The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 replaces which earlier law?
Answer: B. It repeals the colonial-era 1925 Act.
88. What record-low green ammonia price was found in the first SECI auction under SIGHT Mode-2A?
Answer: C. The notes state a record-low price of ₹55.75 per kg.
89. The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2024 repeals which existing law?
Answer: A. The Bill repeals the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958.
90. Biochar is produced through which process?
Answer: A. Pyrolysis heats organic material without oxygen to make biochar.
91. From which date does the 25% American import duty on eligible Indian goods take effect?
Answer: C. The US President announced the 25% duty on Indian imports on July 30, 2025, with implementation beginning August 1, 2025, in the context of the Russia Sanctions Act 2025.
92. The newly declared American tariff on Indian products is connected to which proposed legislation?
Answer: A. The 25% duty is linked to the proposed Russia Sanctions Act 2025 because India continues its trade and defence ties with Russia.
93. Which justification did the US give for slapping tariffs on Indian imports?
Answer: E. Washington named India's high trade barriers and its continuing energy and defence relationship with Russia as the principal grounds for the tariffs.
94. The 25% US import tariff on Indian goods was announced by whom?
Answer: B. It was the US President who formally declared the 25% duty on goods from India on July 30, 2025.
95. Which sector would probably feel the most direct impact from the American tariff on goods from India?
Answer: D. Because the duty falls on physical goods coming from India, manufacturers that sell abroad are hit first and most directly.
96. Into which category of economic policy do tariffs fall?
Answer: E. Governments use tariffs as a trade tool to regulate imports and shelter domestic industries from foreign competition.
97. If India's exports to the US fall because of tariffs, which macroeconomic result is likely?
Answer: B. Lower export earnings bring fewer US dollars into India, which can push the rupee down against the dollar.
98. Which Indian export segment has traditionally been vulnerable to changes in US tariffs?
Answer: D. Textiles and apparel make up a large share of what India ships to the US, so they react strongly whenever American tariffs shift.
99. Raising tariffs is generally intended to achieve what?
Answer: A. When imports become costlier because of duties, local producers gain a competitive edge over foreign suppliers.
100. Which farm products from India might be hit by the 25% American import tariff?
Answer: C. India sells a range of farm goods to the US, including spices, rice and tea, and these could lose price competitiveness once the tariff applies.
101. LLDCs hold about 7% of world population. Roughly what share of the world economy and trade do they contribute?
Answer: A. They contribute just over 1% to world economy and trade despite their population share.
102. What was notable about the 13th India-UAE JDCC meeting?
Answer: B. It was the first JDCC at Secretary level; an MoU on maritime security was also signed.
103. Which development followed directly from the 1945 atomic attacks, according to the notes?
Answer: A. The attacks led directly to Japan's surrender, ending World War II in the Pacific theatre.
104. Who released India's Joint Doctrines for Cyberspace and Amphibious Operations?
Answer: B. The Chief of Defence Staff declassified and released the doctrines.
105. Kartavya Bhavan-03 is the first of how many planned Common Central Secretariat buildings?
Answer: C. The notes say it is the first of ten planned CCS buildings.
106. Up to which financial year has the PM E-Drive Subsidy Scheme now been extended?
Answer: A. The scheme got a two-year extension and now runs through FY 2027-28, while subsidy for electric two- and three-wheelers closes on 31 March 2026.
107. The Khelo India ASMITA Football League 2025-26 was inaugurated at which place?
Answer: B. Jalgaon hosted the first edition, which is meant to encourage more women, particularly from underrepresented groups, to take up sport.
108. Which ISRO launch vehicle is slated to carry the US Block-2 BlueBird communication satellite?
Answer: C. The 6,500 kg Block-2 BlueBird goes up from Sriharikota on LVM-3-M5, the heaviest rocket in ISRO’s fleet.
109. From 1 August 2025, what is ICICI Bank’s revised Minimum Average Balance (MAB) at urban branches?
Answer: D. New savings accounts opened on or after that date at urban branches must maintain ₹50,000, up from the earlier ₹10,000.
110. What is the main use of Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs)?
Answer: E. An FRA is a contract that locks an interest rate for a later period on a notional sum, protecting institutions from rate swings.
111. RBI’s draft guidelines say claims relating to a deceased customer’s account should be settled within what time?
Answer: A. The proposal sets a uniform procedure under which banks must close out such claims within fifteen calendar days of getting all required papers.
112. How many working days will NSE and BSE take to process complete merger or demerger applications under their new SOP?
Answer: B. The revised procedure lets exchanges handle a full application within a week of working days, compared with the three to five months it used to take.
113. For whom is the new AIF category proposed by SEBI intended exclusively?
Answer: C. The proposed category targets accredited investors and would come under lighter regulation than ordinary AIFs.
114. Roughly what fraction of worldwide food output depends on soil?
Answer: D. Almost the whole of global food production rests on soil, which is why its condition matters so much for food security and sustainable farming.
115. Which of these practices is NOT advised for bringing soil health back?
Answer: E. Excessive chemical fertiliser degrades soil, while rotating crops, organic methods, biofertilisers and native seeds all help it recover.
116. MERITE is expected to benefit about how many students?
Answer: C. The scheme is designed to benefit around 7.5 lakh students in technical institutions across States and UTs.
117. Asiatic lions are placed in which schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
Answer: E. Asiatic lions are listed under Schedule I of the Act.
118. Which FAO sub-index fell for the fifth consecutive month in July 2025?
Answer: E. The Sugar Price Index slipped 0.2% to 103.3 points, its fifth straight monthly fall.
119. Which ministry administers the PM E-Drive subsidy scheme?
Answer: C. PM E-Drive is administered by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
120. Where was the Khelo India ASMITA Football League 2025-26 launched?
Answer: C. The inaugural league was held in Jalgaon, Maharashtra.
121. The Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025 is set to take the place of which law, in force for over sixty years?
Answer: B. The 2025 Bill is meant to supersede the Income Tax Act of 1961, which has lasted over 60 years, bringing in major reforms and easier compliance.
122. Which provision was dropped from the Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025 to make taxation of property simpler?
Answer: D. By removing the notional rent rule for vacant property, the Bill rationalises property taxation and gives relief to owners.
123. What share of rural households had tap water connections under Jal Jeevan Mission in 2025?
Answer: E. The mission began in August 2019 when coverage stood at 17%. By 2025 it had climbed to 81%, benefiting more than 15.68 crore rural households.
124. Which tax is levied on companies so that they pay a floor amount based on their book profits?
Answer: B. Minimum Alternate Tax makes sure a company pays about 15% on its book profits even when deductions shrink its taxable income.
125. Under the new rules, how are LLPs whose income is only capital gains, with no specified deductions, treated?
Answer: D. The amendment frees LLPs that earn solely capital gains and claim no specified deductions from any Alternate Minimum Tax liability.
126. Which term do SEBI's reforms use in FPI regulations in place of 'sponsor or manager'?
Answer: A. In its proposals SEBI changed the wording so that 'Fund Management Entity' now stands where 'sponsor or manager' appeared in the Foreign Portfolio Investor rules.
127. SEBI's reforms propose what new minimum investment for Large Value Funds (LVFs)?
Answer: C. SEBI suggested cutting the LVF entry threshold from Rs 70 crore down to Rs 25 crore, widening participation while keeping the investors sophisticated.
128. Which of these is NOT part of SEBI's proposed SWAGAT-FI framework?
Answer: D. SWAGAT-FI permits one demat account with regulatory tagging rather than forcing separate accounts, which makes investing easier.
129. What was the theme under which NABARD marked National Handloom Day 2025 in Assam?
Answer: A. The 2025 programme in Guwahati centred on reviving Assam's rural economy by promoting handloom and empowering women.
130. Which institute worked with NABARD to draw up a Handloom Roadmap for Assam?
Answer: C. NABARD teamed up with IIT Roorkee to prepare a long-term development plan for the handloom sector in Assam.
131. Which statement about India's elephants is supported by the notes?
Answer: B. The wild count rose to 29,964 in 2017; corridors number 150 and train deaths 186.
132. Apart from sleeping sickness, which disease had Kenya eliminated earlier, in 2018?
Answer: A. Kenya had previously eradicated Guinea worm disease in 2018.
133. How many hazardous chemicals are addressed by the Contaminated Sites Rules, 2025, under earlier regulations?
Answer: D. The rules address 189 hazardous chemicals identified under previous regulations.
134. The review says India accounted for what share of global real-time payment volume in FY 2025?
Answer: E. The share was 48.5%; 41.7% was the rise in UPI volume.
135. Tuvalu gained independence from the United Kingdom in which year?
Answer: C. Tuvalu, formerly the Ellice Islands, became independent in October 1978.
136. The Union Cabinet cleared four fresh semiconductor projects worth ₹4,600 crore under the India Semiconductor Mission. Which one is India’s first commercial Silicon Carbide (SiC) fab?
Answer: A. Working with the UK’s Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd., SiCSem will run the country’s first commercial SiC compound semiconductor plant in Odisha, serving defence, EVs and solar inverters.
137. What new name did the Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2025 give to the National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET)?
Answer: B. The trust is now NMEDT with a wider remit covering offshore and overseas exploration of critical minerals, and leaseholders pay 3% of royalty instead of 2%.
138. Which bill takes the place of the 1908 Indian Ports Act, aiming at modern port governance and greener operations?
Answer: C. The 2025 bill supersedes the old law with updated rules, digital port procedures, green and safe port standards, and new bodies such as MSDC and State Maritime Boards.
139. CDSCO and the Health Ministry recently rolled out SHRESTH. Which area does it concern?
Answer: D. SHRESTH is the first index of its kind, comparing state drug regulators against WHO benchmarks, ranking them every month and encouraging uniform drug regulation.
140. In what capacity did the RBI give Paytm Payments Services Ltd. (PPSL) its in-principle approval?
Answer: E. With this nod PPSL can bring merchants on board and let them take several kinds of digital payment.
141. Group insolvency, cross-border insolvency and pre-packaged insolvency for large corporates are introduced by which amendment bill?
Answer: A. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendment seeks quicker resolution of corporate distress through these three mechanisms.
142. From which date will NPCI stop UPI Pull (Collect) transactions because of increasing fraud?
Answer: B. The Pull/Collect feature ends on 31 October 2025, since fraudsters exploited it to persuade users to approve payments they never intended.
143. Which long-standing law has the Income Tax Bill, 2025 superseded?
Answer: C. After around sixty years the 1961 Act is being replaced, with a single “Tax Year” concept, broader digital asset definitions and compulsory digital compliance.
144. RBI recently let foreign investors park surplus balances held in Vostro accounts in which instrument?
Answer: D. Idle money in Vostro accounts, which Indian banks keep for overseas banks, may now go into central government securities, supporting rupee trade settlement.
145. India’s CPI inflation dropped to 1.55% in July 2025, an eight-year low. Which statement describes what the CPI basket covers?
Answer: E. The Consumer Price Index tracks retail prices across food and beverages, clothing, housing, fuel and light, and other items such as education, health and transport.
146. The Equator Prize 2025 had winners from how many countries?
Answer: E. Ten winners were chosen from nine countries.
147. In which year did Azerbaijan militarily retake Nagorno-Karabakh, displacing thousands of ethnic Armenians?
Answer: E. The background notes that Azerbaijan reclaimed the region by force in 2023.
148. Through which scheme is the Rs 300 PMUY subsidy delivered?
Answer: B. The subsidy operates through the Pratyaksh Hastantarit Labh (PAHAL) DBT scheme.
149. Which ministry implements the India Semiconductor Mission under the Semicon India Programme?
Answer: B. MeitY implements the mission.
150. Under the MMDR Amendment Bill 2025, leaseholders' contribution to NMEDT rises to what share of royalty payable?
Answer: D. The contribution increases from 2% to 3% of royalty payable.
151. The AI tool 'SabhaSaar', which produces structured Minutes of Meetings from Gram Sabha recordings, was launched by which ministry?
Answer: A. SabhaSaar uses AI and NLP to transcribe Gram Sabha meetings and summarise key points into minutes. It handles 13 languages and works with Bhashini for translation.
152. The Rs 2,250 crore Export Promotion Mission has two chief components. Which option below is NOT one of them?
Answer: E. The two core parts are NIRYAT PROTSAHAN for financial support and NIRYAT DISHA for market access. NIRYAT SAHAYATA does not belong to the scheme.
153. Who will head India's first privately built Earth Observation satellite constellation under the PPP model?
Answer: B. Under the IN-SPACe framework, PixxelSpace India heads a consortium with Piersight Space, Dhruva Space and Satsure Analytics to build 12 EO satellites for farming, climate, disasters and security.
154. Which of these is NOT a provision of the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025?
Answer: D. Disputes go to a new National Sports Tribunal, and doping appeals will be heard by a fresh Appeal Panel rather than the Supreme Court.
155. What is the goal of the FREE-AI framework issued by the RBI?
Answer: E. The Framework for Responsible and Ethical Enablement of AI promotes fair, safe and transparent AI in finance, stressing trust, accountability and innovation.
156. The RBI's revised co-lending guidelines lowered the minimum share of a loan that regulated entities must keep to what level?
Answer: B. Regulated entities now have to hold at least 10% of loans on their own books, down from 20% earlier for NBFCs, which eases liquidity strain on smaller NBFCs.
157. Under RBI rules, an Indian company's Overseas Direct Investment can go up to what multiple of its net worth?
Answer: D. Indian firms may invest abroad up to four times their net worth through joint ventures or wholly owned subsidiaries, with restricted sectors such as real estate and banking excluded.
158. How does SEBI's proposed definition describe algorithmic trading?
Answer: A. SEBI treats algo trading as any order created and executed automatically by pre-set computer programs, which gives more speed and efficiency than manual dealing.
159. SBI launched a special personal loan for Agniveers. What is the largest amount it offers?
Answer: C. The scheme lends up to Rs 4 lakh without collateral, and the repayment period is matched to the Agniveer's service term under Agnipath.
160. NABARD and APGB joined Aqua Exchange to offer IoT-enabled loans to which sector?
Answer: D. A pilot in Andhra Pradesh uses IoT devices to track water quality, feed and disease in shrimp ponds, supporting sustainable aquaculture.
161. Which agency, jointly with the Arunachal government, will execute the Tato-II project?
Answer: E. A joint venture of NEEPCO and the Arunachal Pradesh government will execute the project.
162. How does a CEPA differ from a standard FTA, as noted in this agreement?
Answer: E. CEPA is broader than a standard FTA, covering regulatory cooperation such as competition policy and intellectual property rights.
163. The 2021 Kush Kalra case, cited in the ruling, concerned women's entry to which institution?
Answer: C. Kush Kalra concerned women's entry to the National Defence Academy; Babita Puniya concerned permanent commissions.
164. Which ministry launched the AI-based SabhaSaar tool?
Answer: A. The notes say MoPR launched SabhaSaar for Gram Sabha meeting minutes.
165. Which agency is the main implementing body of the Export Promotion Mission?
Answer: B. The notes name the Directorate General of Foreign Trade as the main implementing agency.
166. Mission Sudarshan Chakra, launched recently, is chiefly intended for what?
Answer: A. Announced on 15 August 2025 and run by the Defence Ministry, it plans an advanced layered shield for important installations, mixing cultural values with modern defence technology.
167. The National Deep Water Exploration Mission relates to which field?
Answer: B. Started on Independence Day 2025, it looks for undersea oil and gas, especially around the Andaman Sea and the Andhra coast, to improve energy security.
168. How many main slabs will the proposed structure have under the Next-Generation GST Reform (2025), leaving aside special rates?
Answer: C. The overhaul suggests just two slabs, 5% on essentials and 18% on most other goods and services, with an extra 40% rate for items like tobacco and alcohol.
169. Which one of these needs authorisation from the RBI under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007?
Answer: D. A PA directly handles customers’ money and so needs RBI’s approval, whereas a TPA only supplies the technology platform and needs none.
170. What is another name for Participating (Par) Products in insurance?
Answer: E. Policyholders in these plans receive a share of the insurer’s surplus as bonuses, such as reversionary, cash or terminal bonuses.
171. Which UPI facility is due to be withdrawn from 1 October 2025 over fraud worries?
Answer: A. NPCI is ending the option to ask another person for money through UPI because scammers had been misusing it more and more.
172. What does the Credit-to-Deposit Ratio of Indian banks reveal?
Answer: B. The ratio shows what part of a bank’s deposits has been lent, and with it staying under 80% at present, loans are growing slower than deposits.
173. The RBI has said it will replace batch-based cheque clearing with which new arrangement?
Answer: C. Cheques will be handled all through banking hours instead of in batches, so settlement is finished on the same day.
174. Which of the following is NOT a feature of SBI Life’s “Smart Shield Plus”?
Answer: D. This is a pure protection term plan, non-linked and non-participating, so it has level, increasing and future-proofing cover but pays no maturity bonus.
175. Punjab & Sind Bank’s newly introduced ‘PSB Naari Shakti’ Savings Account is chiefly aimed at which goal?
Answer: E. The account provides banking services designed for women together with health perks including cancer cover, accident insurance and free check-ups.
176. Where was INC-5.1, the first part of the fifth plastics treaty negotiating session, held?
Answer: E. INC-5.1 was held in Busan, Republic of Korea, in November-December 2024.
177. Which grouping matches the 2025 SYSM awardees?
Answer: B. The list has four Air Marshals, two Lieutenant Generals and one Vice Admiral.
178. What layer of the companion star did the black hole's gravity strip away, exposing its helium core?
Answer: A. The black hole's gravity ripped away the star's hydrogen layer, exposing the helium core.
179. Before Nagaland, La. Ganesan served as Governor of which state between August 2021 and February 2023?
Answer: E. He was Governor of Manipur from August 2021 to February 2023, and held additional charge of West Bengal in 2022.
180. Which ministry is the nodal ministry for Mission Sudarshan Chakra?
Answer: B. The notes list the Ministry of Defence as nodal ministry.
181. After whom has the newly found palm Phoenix roxburghii been named?
Answer: D. The new palm honours William Roxburgh, who is remembered as the 'Father of Indian Botany'.
182. The newly identified palm Phoenix roxburghii falls in which plant family?
Answer: E. It is part of the Arecaceae family, also called Palmae, in the order Arecales, a group of monocot flowering plants.
183. Which agency runs the Sakura Science Programme 2025, which includes 34 Indian students?
Answer: B. JST implements the programme, which encourages youth exchange, scientific learning and cultural cooperation between India and Japan.
184. S&P Global raised India's sovereign rating from BBB- to BBB after a gap of how many years?
Answer: D. The upgrade to BBB came after 18 years at BBB-, pointing to the economy's resilience and fiscal consolidation.
185. A sovereign credit rating is a measure of what?
Answer: A. Such a rating judges how creditworthy a nation is and whether it can meet its debt obligations; better ratings signal safer investments.
186. Which of these banks did NOT sign an MoU with NSIC under the MSME Credit Facilitation Program in August 2025?
Answer: C. In this round NSIC signed agreements with Axis, IndusInd, Dhanlaxmi, Karnataka Bank and AU Small Finance Bank, while SBI was left out.
187. In which year did the RBI's Floating Rate Savings Bond (FRSB) come into being?
Answer: D. The FRSB scheme started on 1 July 2020 and took the place of the 7.75% Savings (Taxable) Bonds, 2018.
188. What was the interest rate on the RBI's Floating Rate Savings Bond as of July 2025?
Answer: A. The bond rate is set at the National Savings Certificate rate plus 0.35%. With NSC at 7.70%, the FRSB works out to 8.05% in July 2025.
189. Through which route are B2B fintechs mostly moving into the retail market?
Answer: C. These firms are heading into consumer payments via TPAPs such as Google Pay, PhonePe and Paytm, which lowers customer acquisition costs and lets them earn from users.
190. What is the smallest amount one can put into the RBI's Floating Rate Savings Bonds (FRSB)?
Answer: E. Investments start at Rs 1,000 and go up in multiples of Rs 1,000, with no upper limit.
191. Which policy framework does SLINEX-2025 reflect, according to the reports?
Answer: E. The exercise reflects India's MAHASAGAR policy for security and growth across regions.
192. The Bhashini language platform, integrated with SabhaSaar, was developed under which ministry?
Answer: B. Bhashini, launched in 2022 under the National Language Translation Mission, is led by MeitY.
193. Which statement about SAF in these notes is correct?
Answer: B. SAF reduces lifecycle emissions by up to 80%, though it costs about three times more.
194. What was the area of the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park mentioned in the notes?
Answer: C. The Marine National Park covers 162.89 sq km; the larger Biosphere Reserve spans 10,500 sq km.
195. In the engineered mercury sensor, what happens when mercury concentration increases?
Answer: A. Higher mercury means stronger MerR activation and more phenazines, so the electrical current rises in proportion.
196. What does the FAO’s *State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2025* report give as the present global prevalence of undernourishment?
Answer: A. The report notes that worldwide undernourishment dropped from 9.4% in 2020 to 8.2% in 2025, and India contributed greatly to that fall.
197. How can the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India be removed from the post?
Answer: B. Article 324 protects the CEC, who can be removed only by a demanding impeachment-type process needing a two-thirds majority in both Houses after a judicial inquiry.
198. By which year has India aimed to place its first astronaut on the Moon?
Answer: C. The government has announced a crewed lunar mission by 2040, in line with the Viksit Bharat @2047 vision.
199. Which nation is widely seen as the worldwide benchmark for ethanol blending because of long use of flex-fuel vehicles and high blend levels?
Answer: D. Brazil has had ethanol blending policies since 1975 and now sells E27 petrol, aided by flex-fuel cars and state support.
200. Under SEBI’s suggested change to Minimum Public Shareholding rules, a company with market cap from ₹50,000 crore to ₹1 lakh crore has what time to reach 25% public shareholding?
Answer: E. The phased plan for such large-caps asks for 15% in five years and then 25% by the tenth year.
201. SEBI’s consultation paper says a sectoral or thematic index should contain at least how many constituents?
Answer: A. For use in derivatives, such indices need a minimum of fourteen stocks and no single stock may weigh more than 20%.
202. Per RBI’s loan classification, how is a loan that has been overdue for 31 to 60 days labelled?
Answer: B. Stress is tagged SMA-0 for 1–30 days overdue, SMA-1 for 31–60 and SMA-2 for 61–90, and past 90 days the account turns into an NPA.
203. Where does Tata AIA’s Momentum 50 Index Fund mainly put its money?
Answer: C. It follows the BSE 500 Momentum 50 Customized Index, holding fifty shares that have shown strong momentum lately.
204. What is the goal of IRDAI’s shift to a Risk-Based Capital (RBC) framework?
Answer: D. With RBC, an insurer keeps capital in proportion to the investment, underwriting, operational and market risks it carries, improving stability and protecting policyholders.
205. Which institution held *Agri Startup 2.0*, an event promoting sustainable farming and agripreneurship?
Answer: E. The College of Agricultural Sciences at SRMIST, together with the Isha Save Soil Movement, organised it to encourage soil health, natural farming and agri-innovation.
206. What practical benefit of placing the panels between tracks is highlighted?
Answer: D. Using space between tracks means no land acquisition, and panels can be lifted for maintenance.
207. As per FAO's 2025 food security report, global undernourishment stood at what level?
Answer: B. The report gave 8.2%, or 673 million people.
208. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Chief Election Commissioner appointed?
Answer: B. The CEC is appointed under Article 324.
209. By which year did the Union Minister say India will land an astronaut on the Moon?
Answer: D. The announcement in Lok Sabha set 2040 for the crewed Moon landing.
210. India's target under E20 is to blend what share of ethanol in petrol by 2025?
Answer: C. E20 means 20% ethanol blending, targeted by 2025.
211. Which Article of the Constitution covers a Governor's power to assent to, withhold assent from, or reserve a Bill for the President?
Answer: E. Article 200 lays out what a Governor can do with state bills: give assent, withhold it, or reserve the Bill for the President. Article 201 concerns the President, and Article 142 the Supreme Court.
212. In which Indian regions does the saltwater crocodile, the biggest living crocodilian, occur?
Answer: B. Within India these crocodiles live mainly in West Bengal's Sundarbans, Odisha's Bhitarkanika National Park and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
213. Which proposed Constitutional Amendment brings in 'One Nation, One Election' by adding Article 82A?
Answer: D. The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024 inserts Article 82A so that Lok Sabha and State Assembly polls can be held together.
214. What is the main objective of the Union Government's draft Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025?
Answer: E. Citing addiction and financial dangers, the Bill proposes to prohibit all online real-money gaming, whether based on skill or chance.
215. India's foreign liabilities in mutual funds rose to Rs 2.6 lakh crore in FY25, says the RBI. Which country invested the most?
Answer: B. The UAE supplied roughly a fifth of all foreign money in Indian mutual funds, which made it the largest source.
216. What is the total corpus of the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) announced in Union Budget 2025-26?
Answer: D. The UCF is a Rs 1 lakh crore financing model, competitive and tied to performance, that supports sustainable and innovative city development.
217. On what basis is the Nifty Bank Index weighted?
Answer: A. The index relies on free-float market capitalisation and covers 12 liquid, large-cap banking stocks.
218. Which investment vehicles are obliged to pay out at least 90% of their net distributable cash flows to investors?
Answer: C. SEBI rules require both infrastructure trusts (InvITs) and real estate trusts (REITs) to give unit holders 90% of net distributable cash flows.
219. Punjab National Bank was the first public sector bank to shift to which RBI-approved domain?
Answer: D. PNB moved its site to www.pnb.bank.in following the RBI's cybersecurity guidelines, and IDRBT acts as the registrar for the .bank.in domain.
220. What proportion of nitrogen by weight does urea, India's most widely used fertiliser, contain?
Answer: A. Urea holds 46% nitrogen, the most among solid nitrogen fertilisers, which makes it the cheapest per unit and the most common choice in India.
221. Which Article gives the Governor the options to assent, withhold assent or reserve a bill for the President?
Answer: A. Article 200 lists the Governor's choices on bills.
222. In which wildlife-law schedule is the saltwater crocodile placed under India's Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
Answer: A. The notes list it under Schedule I.
223. Who heads the Joint Parliamentary Committee examining the One Nation One Election Bill?
Answer: B. The JPC is headed by BJP MP P.P. Chaudhary.
224. In which House was the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025 scheduled for introduction?
Answer: B. The draft Bill was set to be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
225. A cloudburst is defined as rainfall exceeding what rate over roughly 30 sq. km?
Answer: C. The notes define it as above 100 mm per hour over about 30 sq. km.
226. What is the principal purpose of the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025?
Answer: A. It seeks to shield people, youngsters in particular, from damaging real-money online games while encouraging e-sports and social or educational games.
227. What punishment does the Online Gaming Bill, 2025 prescribe for those who offend repeatedly?
Answer: B. Repeat offenders face a tough penalty of up to five years in jail along with a fine of ₹2 crore.
228. India recently test-fired Agni-5. How far can it strike at maximum?
Answer: C. Developed by DRDO, Agni-5 is an intermediate range ballistic missile able to hit targets as far as 5,000 km and carry nuclear warheads.
229. What would the 130th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2025 provide for?
Answer: D. The PM, Chief Ministers and Ministers would have to go after being held for thirty days in a row on offences carrying at least five years of punishment.
230. Which two countries together founded the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
Answer: E. The two nations launched the ISA in 2015 at the Paris COP21 summit to advance solar energy.
231. Per the RBI’s August 2025 MPC, inflation in India is likely to climb close to what figure in early 2026?
Answer: A. The central bank forecasts inflation reaching roughly 4.9% in early 2026, which is above its 4% goal.
232. In 2025 the Centre suggested exempting which class of policies from GST?
Answer: B. The idea is to remove the 18% GST on premiums of individual life and health cover, to widen financial inclusion.
233. With which African institution did India Exim Bank recently sign a $40 million line of credit?
Answer: C. The deal with EBID is meant to fund Indian involvement in infrastructure projects across Africa.
234. In which year was India Exim Bank set up?
Answer: D. It came into being in 1982 through the Export-Import Bank of India Act, with a mandate to boost the nation’s foreign trade and investment.
235. Bayer has launched an insecticide named “Camalus”. Which crop group is it mainly aimed at?
Answer: E. It is made for vegetables such as tomato, brinjal, chilli, cabbage and okra, to control both chewing and sucking pests.
236. On which date did the UN General Assembly designate the International Day of Older Persons?
Answer: B. The UN's International Day of Older Persons is on 1 October, distinct from the US-origin World Senior Citizens Day on 21 August.
237. Which pairing of project and cost is correct?
Answer: C. The Bhubaneswar Bypass costs Rs 8,307.74 crore; the Kota-Bundi airport Rs 1,507 crore.
238. What is the maximum prison term for offering or facilitating online money games under the 2025 Online Gaming Bill?
Answer: C. First offences carry up to 3 years and ₹1 crore fine.
239. From where was the Agni-5 missile test-fired on August 20, 2025?
Answer: B. The launch took place from ITR, Chandipur, Odisha.
240. After how many consecutive days of arrest would an office-holder lose office under the 130th Amendment Bill, 2025?
Answer: C. The bill removes the person on the 31st day after 30 consecutive days in custody.
241. The FICCI-EY joint report says India could take what portion of the global green hydrogen market?
Answer: E. The report holds that India can secure a 10% slice of the worldwide green hydrogen market if it tackles high costs, infrastructure gaps and fossil fuel subsidies.
242. Which statement is NOT a principle of the Outer Space Treaty (1967)?
Answer: B. The treaty forbids any sovereign claim over celestial bodies. Space is seen as the shared heritage of humanity, to be used peacefully with shared responsibility.
243. Besides a gold and a silver medal at the 18th International Earth Science Olympiad (IESO) 2025, Rayansh Gupta earned which special honour?
Answer: D. At IESO 2025 in Jining, China, Rayansh Gupta came away with one gold, one silver and the Special GYM Reporter Award.
244. What is the chief purpose of the Draft Climate Finance Taxonomy put out by India's Ministry of Finance in 2025?
Answer: A. The taxonomy classifies climate-aligned sectors, so investors can tell real green projects from greenwashing and gain confidence.
245. SEBI's plan to regulate trading of shares before listing is meant to bring order to which unregulated market?
Answer: C. Unlisted shares are informally traded ahead of IPOs in the grey market, and regulating it would ensure fair price discovery, tax compliance and investor protection.
246. What is the present inflation target under India's Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework?
Answer: D. The RBI has worked under FIT since 2016, aiming for 4% CPI inflation with a tolerance of 2 points either way, that is a 2% to 6% range.
247. Where does the SBI Dynamic Asset Allocation Active Fund of Funds (FoF) mainly put its money?
Answer: A. This FoF holds a basket of other mutual funds covering equity, debt, gold and more, and shifts the mix dynamically as markets change.
248. SEBI's push for longer-tenure derivatives is intended to cut the dominance of which contracts?
Answer: C. Around 90% of retail traders lose money in weekly options, so SEBI wants monthly or quarterly contracts to curb speculation and encourage hedging.
249. For which category of account holders did AU Small Finance Bank recently start UPI services?
Answer: E. The bank switched on UPI for NRIs holding NRE and NRO accounts, who can use international mobile numbers from 12 countries, in line with NPCI guidelines.
250. What makes the co-branded credit card of IndiGo and IDFC FIRST Bank distinctive?
Answer: B. One application yields two variants, Mastercard and RuPay, combining global acceptance with UPI integration and including FD-backed options for people new to credit.
251. What is the combined GDP of the EAEU bloc cited in the notes?
Answer: D. The EAEU is described as a USD 6.5 trillion economy.
252. Which child acute malnutrition level is part of the IPC famine criteria?
Answer: E. The criteria require acute malnutrition above 30% in children, alongside 20% household food shortage and 2 deaths per 10,000 a day.
253. What annual green hydrogen production target does India have for 2030 under the mission?
Answer: C. The target is 5 MMT annual production by 2030.
254. Which 1967 treaty is cited as the base for international space law in the notes on India's space law need?
Answer: A. The notes discuss Outer Space Treaty, 1967 principles.
255. Where was the 18th International Earth Science Olympiad (IESO 2025) held?
256. What is the chief objective of the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan run by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs?
Answer: A. Described as the largest tribal grassroots leadership effort in the world, it focuses on community empowerment, developing leaders and governance that responds at village level.
257. Under which initiative was Kerala recently announced as the first state in India to be fully digitally literate?
Answer: B. Kerala earned the title in August 2025 once Phase I of Digi Kerala had been finished successfully.
258. NITI Aayog’s report *“Rethinking Homestays”* recommended which step to strengthen the homestay ecosystem?
Answer: C. It calls for easy registration via one digital window, incentives tailored to each destination, and digital market links with online travel agencies.
259. What CPI inflation target does the RBI’s Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework currently set?
Answer: D. In place since 2016, FIT aims for 4% inflation within a 2–6% band, and the arrangement lapses in March 2026, so a review is under way.
260. Which statement about Headline CPI and Core CPI is correct?
Answer: E. Headline CPI takes in every item whereas Core CPI leaves out food and fuel; the RBI leans on headline because food is nearly half the basket and hits households directly.
261. At AMFI’s 30th anniversary event, SEBI called for extra care regarding which kind of investment?
Answer: A. The SEBI chief cautioned fund houses against risky tailor-made arrangements with micro-cap firms, in order to protect investors and keep things transparent.
262. Which financial product did L&T Finance tie up with Google Pay to offer right on the app?
Answer: B. Through the tie-up, eligible Google Pay users can get quick personal loans without leaving the app.
263. The Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF) looks into fraud cases of what minimum size?
Answer: C. For frauds of ₹3 crore or more in public sector banks, insurers and financial institutions, ABBFF assesses culpability before any criminal probe starts.
264. RBI has suggested widening the Counterparty Credit Risk (CCR) capital charge to cover which products?
Answer: D. The change would bring CCR rules closer to Basel norms by covering equity and commodity derivatives other than gold, thereby strengthening capital adequacy.
265. Until when has the Union Cabinet approved fortified rice supply across all schemes?
Answer: E. In August 2025 the Cabinet cleared ₹17,082 crore, entirely funded by the Centre, for fortified rice under every central scheme up to December 2028 to tackle anaemia and malnutrition.
266. Which ministry launched the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan?
Answer: B. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched the campaign.
267. Which body released the report "Rethinking Homestays: Navigating Policy Pathways"?
Answer: B. NITI Aayog published the homestay roadmap.
268. Which state was declared India's first fully digitally literate state in August 2025?
Answer: D. Kerala's Chief Minister made the declaration.
269. Who is the SEBI Chairperson who addressed the AMFI 30th anniversary event?
Answer: C. The notes name Tuhin Kanta Pandey as SEBI Chairperson.
270. L&T Finance partnered with which platform to offer instant personal loans?
271. The Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS), recently tested by DRDO, is being built under which mission?
Answer: B. IADWS is a multi-layered air defence setup under Mission Sudarshan Chakra, which targets an indigenous Iron Dome-style system by 2035.
272. ISRO's Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT-01) was conducted to prove which Gaganyaan system?
Answer: D. IADT-01 checked the parachutes of the Gaganyaan crew module so that astronauts can descend and land safely.
273. The WHO-WMO report says worker productivity falls by how much for every 1 degree C rise above 20 degrees C?
Answer: E. Productivity drops by 2 to 3% for each degree above 20 degrees C, and the effect is strongest in farming, fisheries and construction.
274. What is the principal aim of the Closing Auction Session (CAS) that SEBI has proposed?
Answer: B. By matching orders at an equilibrium level, CAS arrives at a single closing price and reduces volatility and manipulation when the market closes.
275. Which of these is NOT a feature of the Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)?
Answer: D. PMJDY offers zero-balance accounts, RuPay cards, overdraft, insurance and DBT support, but it has no fixed pension component.
276. After SEBI recognised LIC as a public shareholder of IDBI Bank, what is the highest voting right LIC can exercise?
Answer: A. Once classed as a public shareholder, LIC's votes are capped at 10%, and it loses board representation and control over management.
277. Which bank has launched the 'SIB Gold Xpress' loan product?
Answer: C. South Indian Bank introduced SIB Gold Xpress, which lends up to 90% of the gold's value in amounts from Rs 25,000 to Rs 25 lakh.
278. Under the Vegetable Oil Products, Production and Availability (VOPPA) Regulation Order, 2025, producers must send monthly reports by which day?
Answer: D. Every vegetable oil producer has to file a monthly return on production, stock and sales by the 15th under VOPPA 2025.
279. The Union Government's pilot fisheries project in Kuttanad, Kerala, promotes which sustainable practice?
Answer: A. Kuttanad's project backs sustainable aquaculture methods such as integrated farming, cage culture, biofloc and the distinctive 'one fish, one paddy' model.
280. What is the ICMR's CEREBO device used for?
Answer: C. CEREBO is a portable, non-invasive device that spots bleeding and swelling in the brain using near-infrared spectroscopy, intended for rural and emergency care.
281. Which three systems does IADWS combine into a unified command?
Answer: A. IADWS integrates QRSAM, VSHORADS and a Directed Energy Weapon.
282. Which aircraft dropped the dummy Gaganyaan crew module in ISRO's IADT-01?
Answer: D. The dummy capsule was dropped from an IAF Chinook.
283. Which two organisations issued the joint report on heat and workers' productivity?
Answer: A. The report was a joint WHO-WMO effort.
284. Which body approved West Bengal's proposal to expand Sundarbans Tiger Reserve?
Answer: B. NBWL approved the expansion.
285. What does CAS stand for in SEBI's closing price proposal?
286. Which forthcoming ISRO rocket is being built to support crewed Moon missions by 2040?
Answer: A. LMLV is expected to be India’s heaviest rocket, ready around 2035, lifting about 27 tonnes towards the Moon and making crewed flights possible by 2040.
287. Women’s workforce participation rate (WPR) in India rose from 22% in 2017-18 to what level in 2023-24?
Answer: B. PLFS figures from the Labour Ministry show women’s WPR nearly doubling to 40.3%, while their unemployment rate dropped from 5.6% to 3.2%.
288. To which Indian Navy project do the newly commissioned INS Udaygiri and INS Himgiri belong?
Answer: C. Both ships are modern stealth frigates of the Nilgiri class built under Project 17A, fitted with BrahMos and Barak-8 missiles.
289. Which of these is NOT a difficulty facing Space-Based Solar Power (SBSP)?
Answer: D. Since the satellites sit in orbit, SBSP avoids the issue of land use; its real problems are heavy costs, hazards in orbit and the scale of infrastructure.
290. What is the main benefit provided by the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) that started in April 2025?
Answer: E. UPS blends elements of the old and national pension systems, promising assured payouts after retirement while employee and employer both still contribute.
291. The RBI is ready to take action if tariffs of 50% imposed by which country hurt India’s growth?
Answer: A. Governor Sanjay Malhotra stated that steps would be taken should the new 50% American duty on some imports weigh on the Indian economy.
292. At what rating has Fitch kept India’s sovereign credit?
Answer: B. Fitch left India at the lowest investment-grade level with a stable outlook, praising growth but pointing to the large fiscal deficit.
293. The FICCI-IBA report says corporate loans’ share in bank credit has fallen from 58% to about what?
Answer: C. The “Charting New Frontiers” study finds companies moving away from bank borrowing toward capital markets, private credit and external commercial borrowings.
294. Which bank has asked the RBI for permission to fund mergers and acquisitions (M&A)?
Answer: D. The SBI chairperson asked the regulator to let banks finance M&A deals, a step that could deepen domestic credit markets and lessen reliance on NBFCs.
295. What is the main focus of “Water Intelligence” in agriculture?
Answer: E. It relies on IoT, AI, predictive analytics and smart irrigation to use water better, waste less and make farms more resilient to climate.
296. Which model does the IBCA's governance structure follow?
Answer: B. The structure follows the International Solar Alliance model: Assembly, Standing Committee and Secretariat.
297. What was Pujara's Test batting average at retirement, as reported?
Answer: C. He averaged 43.60 across 103 Tests.
298. By which year is ISRO's Lunar Module Launch Vehicle (LMLV) expected to be ready?
Answer: C. The notes say LMLV is expected to be ready by 2035.
299. According to the Labour Ministry, women's workforce participation reached what level in 2023-24?
Answer: C. The WPR rose from 22% to 40.3%.
300. Which shipyard built INS Udaygiri?
Answer: C. INS Udaygiri was built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd, Mumbai.
301. Which initiative seeks to turn Anganwadi Centres into lively early-learning spaces under the ECCE reforms?
Answer: B. Poshan Bhi Padhai Bhi shifts Anganwadi Centres from being only nutrition hubs to places with activity-based learning and structured engagement for children.
302. For which age group is the Aadharshila curriculum under the ECCE reforms meant?
Answer: D. Aadharshila is a play-based, structured curriculum prepared by NCERT for 3 to 6 year olds, covering foundational literacy, numeracy and socio-emotional and motor skills.
303. What target does the National Cooperative Policy, 2025 set for 2034?
Answer: A. The policy aims to triple the sector's GDP share by 2034, reaching 50 crore members and placing at least one cooperative in every village.
304. How many 'change leaders' does the Adi Karmayogi Initiative aim to build in tribal villages?
Answer: C. Run by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, the initiative targets 20 lakh change leaders in tribal villages to support participatory governance and delivery of welfare.
305. What is the main focus of the SAMARTH Panchayat Portal?
Answer: D. The portal puts Panchayat tax and non-tax revenue collection online, offering transparency, digital payment and a national database of Panchayat finances.
306. Under Section 124 of the Companies Act, 2013, dividends left unclaimed for 7 straight years go to which body?
Answer: A. Section 124 moves dividends unclaimed for seven years, along with the related shares, to the IEPF to protect investors' interests.
307. On how many foundational principles, called 'sutras', does the RBI's FREE-AI Framework rest?
Answer: C. The framework is built on seven sutras: trust, fairness, accountability, people-first, safety, innovation and transparency.
308. Which country introduced Ryt Bank, described as the world's first AI-powered digital bank, in 2025?
Answer: E. Malaysia launched Ryt Bank, which offers an AI assistant called Ryt AI, support in several languages, instant credit and digital savings.
309. The newly released PhonePe Home Insurance begins at an annual premium of as little as what?
Answer: B. PhonePe's digital home policies start at only Rs 181 a year and offer cover of up to Rs 12.5 crore against more than 20 risks.
310. What is the SAMARTH Mission of the Ministry of Power about?
Answer: B. Started in 2021, the mission pushes biomass co-firing in coal-fired power stations to curb stubble burning and carbon emissions while giving farmers extra income.
311. Over how long will the fortified rice supply under the WFP Letter of Intent run?
Answer: D. The letter of intent covers up to 200,000 tonnes over five years.
312. Rabuka delivered the 54th lecture in which series at the Indian Council of World Affairs?
Answer: A. He spoke at the 54th Sapru House Lecture at the Indian Council of World Affairs, New Delhi.
313. Which age group does the Aadharshila national ECCE curriculum cover?
Answer: B. Aadharshila is the ECCE curriculum for children aged 3-6 years.
314. By which year does the National Cooperative Policy 2025 aim to triple the cooperative sector's GDP share?
Answer: B. The target is tripling the share by 2034.
315. Which ministry launched the Adi Karmayogi initiative?
Answer: A. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched it.
316. NHAI started which initiative to help educate the children of toll plaza staff?
Answer: A. Together with Vertis Infrastructure Trust, NHAI created Project Aarohan offering scholarships, mentoring and career guidance for these children.
317. On which rocket did Dhruva Space and Skyroot Aerospace recently send up their satellites?
Answer: B. The two Indian start-ups flew their satellites on SpaceX’s Falcon 9 as part of the Transporter-12 mission.
318. Until which year has the PM SVANidhi scheme been given an extension?
Answer: C. The Union Cabinet prolonged the street vendor scheme, which gives collateral-free loans, up to 31 March 2030.
319. In what year will India start testing interceptor missiles under Project Kusha?
Answer: D. Trials of the M1 interceptors, which have a 150 km range, are due to start in 2026.
320. The BioE3 Policy sets what size as the target for India’s bioeconomy by 2030?
Answer: E. BioE3, which stands for Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment, aims at a $300 billion bioeconomy by 2030 through R&D support and job creation.
321. EY projects that India will become the second-largest economy in the world by which year?
Answer: A. EY’s August 2025 Economy Watch expects India to hold the number two spot by 2038, with a PPP-based GDP of $34.2 trillion.
322. What is the smallest investment ticket size allowed for Specialised Investment Funds (SIFs)?
Answer: B. SEBI brought in SIFs in April 2025 for experienced investors, requiring a minimum commitment of ten lakh rupees.
323. SEBI has barred “finfluencers” from using which of these in their educational content?
Answer: C. A circular from January 2025 prohibits finfluencers from sharing current stock prices, fresh tips, guaranteed returns or coded advice.
324. Which firm has been named the only advisor for the government’s stake sale in public sector banks?
Answer: D. The government picked Goldman Sachs as sole adviser for reducing its holding in four PSBs: UCO Bank, Central Bank of India, Punjab & Sind Bank and IOB.
325. On which card network does the Unity Bank BharatPe Credit Card run?
Answer: E. BharatPe and Unity Bank issued a card free for life on NPCI’s RuPay network, with UPI integration.
326. How many nations and territories compete in the Commonwealth Games?
Answer: C. The Games bring together athletes from 72 member nations and territories of the Commonwealth.
327. Project Aarohan benefits children of which group of workers?
Answer: B. It supports children of toll plaza employees.
328. Which SpaceX mission carried satellites of Dhruva Space and Skyroot Aerospace?
Answer: A. The satellites flew on Transporter-12.
329. Till which date has the Cabinet extended the PM SVANidhi scheme?
Answer: C. The extension runs till March 31, 2030.
330. What is the range of the M2 interceptor missile under Project Kusha?
Answer: B. M1 is 150 km, M2 is 250 km and M3 is 350 km.
331. According to CMS: Education 2025, at which level of rural schooling did government school enrolment fall the most compared with 2017-18?
Answer: E. In rural areas, government higher secondary enrolment slid from 68% in 2017-18 to 58.9% in 2025, the steepest fall among all levels.
332. Which fintech platform has won SEBI's approval for what is India's largest IPO at $1 billion?
Answer: B. Groww, started in 2016 by former Flipkart employees, got SEBI's go-ahead for a $1 billion IPO, the biggest by an Indian capital market company.
333. What is the main purpose of the UMANG app, now linked with EPFO services?
Answer: D. UMANG, short for Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance, brings over 1,000 services from more than 200 departments together to make access easier for citizens.
334. Which country put a 50% tariff on Indian exports in August 2025, a downside risk that the RBI flagged?
Answer: E. The RBI's State of the Economy report pointed to the steep 50% tariffs imposed by the US on Indian exports from August 27, 2025, as a trade worry.
335. In the RBI's regulatory review, what does the term 'shadow lenders' refer to?
Answer: B. Shadow lenders include NBFCs, HFCs and fintech lenders, which supply credit like banks but sit outside ordinary banking regulation.
336. Where did Punjab National Bank open India's first branch dedicated to startups?
Answer: D. PNB opened the country's first startup-focused branch at Bhikaji Cama Place in New Delhi to back entrepreneurs and early-stage ventures.
337. Which law gives the RBI power to regulate Payment Aggregators in India?
Answer: A. This Act lets the RBI authorise and oversee payment and settlement systems, which covers Payment Aggregators such as Razorpay and PayU.
338. With which company did Utkarsh Small Finance Bank team up to improve debit card management and payment processing?
Answer: C. Utkarsh SFB partnered with Hitachi Payment Services to smooth out management of the debit card lifecycle and strengthen payment processing.
339. Which group of mutual fund investors does SEBI plan to give special incentives to?
Answer: D. To widen financial inclusion, SEBI proposed special distribution incentives for first-time women investors in mutual funds, especially in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
340. With the Mondo Track, India became which numbered country to install this surface?
Answer: D. Reports say India became the 25th country with the Mondo Track surface.
341. The State Energy Efficiency Index 2024 evaluated States and UTs on how many indicators?
Answer: C. The index uses 66 indicators for FY 2023-24.
342. Which statement about the ASI 2023-24 results is correct?
Answer: C. Gujarat leads fixed capital at 19.53%; GVA grew 11.89% and factories number 2,60,061.
343. Which athlete finished third in the men's javelin at the 2025 Diamond League Final?
Answer: A. Keshorn Walcott of Trinidad and Tobago was third with 84.95 m.
344. How many nuclear tests were conducted at the Semipalatinsk site between 1949 and 1989?
Answer: D. The facility conducted 456 nuclear tests in that period before closing in 1991.
345. Which body conducts the Comprehensive Modular Survey?
346. Which report draws on a survey of 12,770 women in 31 Indian cities to gauge women’s safety?
Answer: A. NARI 2025 is a survey-driven index spanning 31 cities and 12,770 women, capturing how safe women feel in a way NCRB data does not.
347. Which of these cities appears among the *safest* in the NARI 2025 report?
Answer: B. NARI 2025 lists Mumbai, Kohima, Vishakhapatnam, Bhubaneswar, Aizawl, Gangtok and Itanagar as safest, and Delhi, Kolkata, Ranchi, Patna, Jaipur, Srinagar and Faridabad as least safe.
348. What does the Samudrayaan Project concern?
Answer: C. Cleared in 2021 under the Deep Ocean Mission, Samudrayaan will take people down to 6,000 m to study minerals, biodiversity and climate.
349. Whom does the DBT BioCARe Programme mainly back?
Answer: D. Started by DBT in 2011, BioCARe (Biotechnology Career Advancement and Re-orientation Programme) assists women in biotechnology and life sciences who are jobless or returning to work.
350. Which body publishes the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
Answer: E. Every month, with a lag of about six weeks, the NSO of MoSPI puts out IIP figures that track short-run shifts in industrial activity.
351. The Index of Industrial Production is currently computed using which base year?
Answer: A. IIP growth is measured against 2011-12, which serves as the reference period.
352. What will the newly announced “Savings Pro” account from Jio Payments Bank do?
Answer: B. It is the country’s first savings account that moves unused balances automatically into overnight funds, giving liquidity along with better returns.
353. In which year did Jio Payments Bank begin operations?
Answer: C. It started in April 2018 and was promoted by Reliance Industries Limited together with State Bank of India.
354. Which scheme pays eligible farmers ₹6,000 every year as direct income support?
Answer: D. Under PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi, qualifying farmers get ₹6,000 a year paid straight into their accounts in three instalments.
355. Which item is NOT a type of financial support given to agriculture?
Answer: E. Farmers receive help through credit, subsidies, insurance, income support and interest subvention, while spectrum allocation belongs to the telecom sector.
356. When did the International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance enter into force?
Answer: E. It was adopted on 20 December 2006 and entered into force on 23 December 2010.
357. How many MSMEs were registered on the Udyam portal as of July 2025, as reported?
Answer: D. Over 6.56 crore MSMEs were registered on Udyam by July 2025.
358. What is the revised surveillance zone for glanders?
Answer: C. The surveillance zone is now 2-10 km, replacing 5-25 km.
359. How many cities does the NARI 2025 women's safety index cover?
Answer: C. The survey covers 31 cities.
360. What is the name of India's crewed submersible under the Samudrayaan project?