Skip to content

Current Affairs Quiz December 2025

344 questions from the news of December 2025, day by day. Tap an option to see the answer.

0 correct of 0 answered · 344 questions

1 December 2025 open

1. In NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025, the best overall score belonged to which state?

Answer: A. Odisha placed first with 678 points; its Debt Index stood at 990 and its Debt Sustainability score at 640.

2. Four states were placed in the 'Aspirational States' group of the Fiscal Health Index 2025. Which set is it?

Answer: E. Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Kerala were grouped as aspirational because of weak revenue raising, large deficits and shaky debt sustainability.

3. The ILO's World Social Protection Report 2024–26 puts India's social protection coverage in 2024 at what level?

Answer: B. Coverage roughly doubled over three years, going from 24.4% in 2021 to 48.8% in 2024.

4. What status did the Asia Power Index 2025 newly assign to India?

Answer: E. India placed third in the ranking and, for the first time, passed the index's own cut-off for being called a major power.

5. Which segment of the corporate bond market is the target of the new Crisil and AMFI proposal to improve liquidity?

Answer: C. Bonds rated AA to BBB trade thinly even though they offer high yields, so the framework seeks to improve trading activity and price discovery.

6. Models for market-making in bonds rated below AAA are being reviewed by which body?

Answer: A. The Department of Economic Affairs began consultations aimed at setting up a formal structure for market makers.

7. A government-backed market maker for AA–BBB bonds would mainly offer which benefit?

Answer: D. Such an entity keeps buy and sell quotes available at all times, giving investors confidence and kick-starting trading.

8. Which group of firms stands to gain most if the AA–BBB bond market becomes liquid?

Answer: B. Smaller and mid-sized firms seldom earn an AAA rating, so they find it hard to raise debt capital today.

9. Puducherry's newly launched Smart Farmer ID Card (SFIC) uses which technology?

Answer: E. The new card takes the place of the old booklet format and lets officials verify identity instantly through a QR-based digital check.

10. Under which mission is the Saras Food Festival 2025 held?

Answer: C. The festival presents rural food traditions and backs women-run self-help groups under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana–National Rural Livelihoods Mission.

11. Under NACP-V, annual HIV testing in India rose from 4.13 crore in 2020-21 to what figure in 2024-25?

Answer: B. Testing climbed to 6.62 crore in 2024-25, while antiretroviral treatment coverage rose from 14.94 lakh to 18.60 lakh.

12. The Dr Paulos Mar Gregorios Award 2025 was awarded to Tessy Thomas for pioneering contributions to which field?

Answer: C. The citation credits her pioneering contributions to defence science.

13. The rustic bunting breeds mainly in which type of habitat?

Answer: C. It breeds in wet coniferous woodlands of the northern Palearctic and winters mostly in East and Southeast Asia.

14. The Kizilelma trial was described as manned-unmanned teaming because which crewed aircraft joined it from Merzifon air base?

Answer: A. Five F-16 fighters flew from Merzifon air base during the test phase, demonstrating crewed-uncrewed formation flying.

15. Which body brings out the Fiscal Health Index 2025 that ranks 18 major Indian states?

Answer: B. The Fiscal Health Index 2025 is a NITI Aayog report, built on CAG data.

2 December 2025 open

16. Hornbill Festival 2025 took place in which of these states?

Answer: C. Nagaland celebrates this flagship cultural festival every December, showcasing Naga heritage and drawing tourists.

17. In economics, the abbreviation CAD refers to what?

Answer: B. A country runs this gap when what it spends on imports of goods, services and transfers is greater than what it earns from exports.

18. Among these unmanned aerial vehicles, which one is in the MALE class?

Answer: D. MALE expands to Medium Altitude Long Endurance, and the Heron Mk II fits that class, operating over satellite links.

19. The fourth edition of Kashi–Tamil Sangamam was held under which theme?

Answer: A. The purpose of this edition is to deepen cultural understanding between Tamil Nadu and Kashi.

20. What is the name of the cess on pan masala and gutkha proposed in the Central Excise (Amendment) Bill 2025?

Answer: D. The bill seeks to deter use of harmful tobacco products through higher excise duty and a fresh cess.

21. Which market segments' rules will SEBI merge into a single unified circular?

Answer: C. By combining the master circulars of the two exchange segments, SEBI wants compliance to become simpler.

22. Proposals for food testing laboratories under Kisaan Sampada must be submitted by what date?

Answer: B. The government is encouraging the creation of 100 new food labs with NABL accreditation, and proposals close on this date.

23. Under which scheme are BC Sakhis trained?

Answer: A. These women agents offer banking at customers' doorsteps through the DAY-NRLM.

24. The Sanchar Saathi app is meant to help users identify what?

Answer: C. By spotting cloned or spoofed IMEI numbers, the app helps stop fraud on mobile phones.

25. What was India's current account deficit for Q2 FY26?

Answer: B. The deficit grew wider as imports rose and merchandise exports weakened.

26. Obesity-related economic costs are projected to reach about how much per year by 2030, according to the WHO GLP-1 coverage?

Answer: C. The projected cost is USD 3 trillion annually by 2030, with over 1 billion people already living with obesity.

27. Which language-learning theme marked the fourth Kashi-Tamil Sangamam?

Answer: A. The notes give the theme as 'Let Us Learn Tamil – Tamil Karkalam'.

28. Which authority issues the special permit that foreigners need under the Protected Area Regime covering Nagaland?

Answer: A. The notes state the permit comes from the Ministry of Home Affairs.

29. Under the food safety push, how many NABL-accredited food testing laboratories did MoFPI invite proposals for?

Answer: B. The notes state 100 NABL-accredited labs with a ₹500 crore outlay.

30. Under the Central Excise (Amendment) Bill 2025, which new levy is proposed for pan masala and gutkha?

Answer: B. The bill brings a Health Security and National Security Cess for pan masala and gutkha.

3 & 4 December 2025 open

31. Countries must refresh their NDCs every five years under which article of the Paris Agreement?

Answer: B. Article 4 obliges every party to submit a revised set of Nationally Determined Contributions at five-year intervals.

32. By what percentage does India's present NDC seek to cut the emissions intensity of its GDP over 2005–2030?

Answer: A. Under its NDC, India has pledged a 45% fall in GDP emissions intensity by 2030 compared with the 2005 level.

33. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) draws its constitutional status from which article?

Answer: D. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018 gave the commission constitutional standing through Article 338B.

34. Within the PM-WANI framework, which component handles user authentication and accounting?

Answer: C. Public Data Office Aggregators verify users and take care of accounting inside the PM-WANI design.

35. How many recommendations are contained in the WHO's first-ever global guideline on infertility?

Answer: B. It sets out 40 evidence-based recommendations that range from preventing infertility to diagnosing, treating and counselling patients.

36. In which IMO Council category was India re-elected for 2026–27?

Answer: A. This category is made up of states with the biggest stake in international seaborne trade, and India polled the most votes within it.

37. Among 29 nations at the WorldSkills Asia Competition 2025, what position did India finish in?

Answer: D. In its first appearance, India finished eighth, bringing home one silver, two bronze and three Medallions for Excellence.

38. Bioventing, air sparging and biobarriers are examples of which kind of bioremediation?

Answer: C. These methods clean up contaminants right where they lie, with no need to dig out soil or pump out groundwater.

39. Which vessel is India's third home-built SSBN due to be commissioned?

Answer: B. INS Aridaman belongs to the Arihant class and is the third indigenous ballistic missile submarine meant for nuclear deterrence.

40. To which class of Indian Navy stealth frigates does INS Taragiri belong?

Answer: A. Taragiri is the fourth ship of the advanced stealth frigate line built under Project 17A.

41. Under India's current NDC, by what percentage is CO₂ emissions intensity of GDP to fall between 2005 and 2030?

Answer: B. The notes list a 45% intensity reduction over 2005-2030.

42. Which constitutional article gives the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) its status?

Answer: C. NCBC has constitutional status under Article 338B.

43. Which department launched the PM-WANI scheme in December 2020?

Answer: A. PM-WANI was launched by the Department of Telecom in December 2020.

44. How many recommendations does WHO's first global infertility guideline contain?

Answer: D. The guideline lists 40 recommendations.

45. How many votes did India get in its IMO Council re-election for Category B (2026-27)?

Answer: B. India received 154 of 169 votes, the highest in Category B.

5 December 2025 open

46. What service is the proposed DHRUVA system intended to deliver in India?

Answer: C. DHRUVA, short for Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address, works like UPI for addresses, creating secure virtual ones such as name@entity that are mapped through a 10-character geocode called DIGIPIN.

47. ISRO's study found that stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana moved mainly to which time window?

Answer: E. Farmers pushed burning into the late afternoon and evening so that polar-orbiting satellites miss it, whereas geostationary ones record more fires at that hour.

48. Garuda Shakti 2025, the India–Indonesia exercise, mainly concentrated on which operational theme?

Answer: A. Held in Himachal Pradesh, the drill practised joint counter-terror missions along with drone warfare and helicopter-borne operations.

49. Following the RBI's repo rate cut to 5.25%, who stands to gain most directly?

Answer: D. Banks pass on cheaper lending rates after a repo reduction, so loan instalments fall and retail borrowing gets a push.

50. Which of the new LIC plans is a pure protection policy paying a fixed death benefit?

Answer: B. Bima Kavach is a plain risk cover with a set death benefit and protection that can run up to 100 years, whereas Protection Plus mixes linked savings with life cover.

51. Why might banks see their Net Interest Margins come under pressure?

Answer: D. After a repo cut, loan rates are lowered promptly while deposit rates adjust slowly, so the gap between them narrows and NIM shrinks.

52. Under the revised RBI rules, foreign banks must report exposures to their parent branches under which framework?

Answer: A. The RBI directed that parent-branch exposures fall inside the LEF with no exemptions, in order to curb concentration risk.

53. World Soil Day 2025 carried which theme?

Answer: E. This year's theme draws attention to what urban soils do for climate regulation, flood control, city farming and ecological health.

54. Which of these is flagged as a key danger to urban soils under World Soil Day 2025?

Answer: B. As cities grow, concrete and asphalt cover the ground, stopping water from soaking in and damaging life within the soil.

55. Which body intends to release six critically endangered vultures in Assam?

Answer: C. Slender-billed and white-rumped vultures are due to be freed in early 2026 under India's vulture recovery programme, with BNHS in charge.

56. Which visa categories are covered by the free 30-day e-visa for Russian nationals?

Answer: B. The facility covers e-tourist and group tourist visas.

57. How many new Indian consulates are to open in Russia under the plan announced in December 2025?

Answer: B. Two new Indian consulates will open in Russia.

58. Which department released the draft amendment proposing the DHRUVA digital addressing system?

Answer: B. The Department of Posts released the draft.

59. In the ISRO stubble-burning study, how often can geostationary satellites detect fire events?

Answer: A. Geostationary satellites watch one region continuously and detect fires every half-hour.

60. Which organisation planned to release six vultures in Assam in January 2026?

Answer: B. The Bombay Natural History Society announced the release as part of the recovery programme.

6 December 2025 open

61. How many years of the Special & Privileged Strategic Partnership did the 23rd India–Russia Annual Summit 2025 commemorate?

Answer: D. The partnership was set up in 2000, so 2025 completes a quarter century of it.

62. Which corridor did India and Russia single out for expansion at the 2025 summit?

Answer: A. Both sides agreed to push forward the Chennai–Vladivostok sea route as a key connectivity project.

63. The 20th UNESCO Intergovernmental Committee session on Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) hosted by India took place at which venue?

Answer: E. The session was held at Red Fort, which is itself a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

64. India holds the bilateral Exercise Harimau Shakti 2025 with which nation?

Answer: C. The drill pairs the Indian Army with the Royal Malaysian Army.

65. Troops of which regiment took part for India in Exercise Harimau Shakti 2025?

Answer: E. Soldiers from the Dogra Regiment formed the Indian Army's contingent for the exercise.

66. What does an Open Market Operation (OMO) purchase by the RBI mean?

Answer: C. In an OMO purchase the central bank buys government securities, which puts additional liquidity into the banking system.

67. What was the main purpose behind the RBI's ₹1 trillion OMO purchase announcement?

Answer: A. The purchase was meant to steady system liquidity and ease pressure on the rupee.

68. Which regulator asked the RBI to let banks participate in non-agricultural commodity derivatives?

Answer: D. SEBI suggested bringing banks, insurers and pension funds into the non-agri commodity derivatives market.

69. On which exchange are non-agricultural commodity derivatives chiefly traded in India?

Answer: B. The Multi Commodity Exchange is the main venue for contracts such as metals and energy.

70. Under the RBI's revised rule, when may several entities in one bank group carry on the same business?

Answer: E. The RBI now permits more than one group company in a line of business provided each addresses a distinct segment and the board justifies any overlap.

71. Mahaparinirvan Diwas on 6 December commemorates Ambedkar's death in which year?

Answer: A. Dr B.R. Ambedkar died on 6 December 1956, and the day is observed as Mahaparinirvan Diwas.

72. Which organisation is the outreach partner of the 11th India International Science Festival?

Answer: D. Vijnana Bharati is the outreach partner, while IITM Pune coordinates for the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

73. Which earlier system for Waqf asset data was disabled on 8 May 2025?

Answer: B. The older WAMSI system, known for errors and duplicates, was disabled on 8 May 2025.

74. What bilateral trade target by 2030 did India and Russia set at the 23rd Annual Summit?

Answer: C. Both sides targeted USD 100 billion trade by 2030.

75. How many Member States sit on the UNESCO Intergovernmental Committee for Safeguarding Intangible Cultural Heritage?

Answer: C. It is a 24-member body under the 2003 ICH Convention.

7 & 8 December 2025 open

76. The pension scheme aimed specifically at below-poverty-line people aged 65 and above is:

Answer: D. Launched in 1995, IGNOAPS gives direct income support to BPL senior citizens of 65 and over and forms part of the country's social assistance network.

77. What key governance change is proposed in the draft Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) Bill, 2025?

Answer: A. The draft would repeal the 1959 Act and turn ISI from a registered society into a statutory body corporate governed by a Board in which government nominees predominate.

78. What share of elderly Indians cannot use the internet, which hinders digital pension reforms?

Answer: B. Because 63% of older people cannot go online, schemes such as NPS, APY and e-SHRAM are hard for them to reach.

79. By roughly how much had the rupee depreciated since April 2025 when it crossed ₹90 per US dollar?

Answer: E. The currency closed at ₹90.19 after sliding 5.5% from April 2025, pressured by tariffs, capital outflows and commodity prices.

80. Which measure did the RBI announce in its December 2025 monetary policy?

Answer: C. The MPC lowered the repo rate by 25 bps, taking the cumulative easing to 125 bps, and also announced ₹1 trillion of OMOs and a $5B swap.

81. Raajmarg Infra InvIT (RIIT) exists mainly to do what?

Answer: E. It is meant to be a transparent investment vehicle, working within Sebi's InvIT framework, for monetising highway assets.

82. Which ecosystem is described as more climate-resilient because it stores carbon underground?

Answer: B. India's grasslands lock carbon steadily below ground in deep roots, and they withstand fire and drought better.

83. Grassland restoration under which initiative lifted soil organic carbon by as much as 50% within three years?

Answer: A. Research at Malshiras and Banni Grasslands found that restoration financed through CAMPA raised SOC by 21% after two years and 50% after three.

84. ICAR has asked universities to begin courses chiefly in which area?

Answer: C. It wants every agricultural university to offer UG and PG programmes and research in natural farming, for sustainability and soil health.

85. What chiefly caused the delay in rolling out e-NAM 2.0 in Rajasthan?

Answer: D. Rajasthan struggled to transfer records of 1.6M farmers and 150k traders, so trading temporarily reverted to manual methods.

86. The Candidates 2026 is scheduled to begin on which date?

Answer: B. It runs from 28 March to 16 April 2026 in Cyprus.

87. Maharashtra's state target for solar agricultural pumps is how many?

Answer: A. Over 7.47 lakh pumps have been installed so far against a target of 10.45 lakh.

88. A country's trade surplus arises when which condition holds?

Answer: B. A trade surplus means the value of exports is greater than imports, as in China's USD 1 trillion-plus surplus.

89. In Hachinohe, what was the maximum shindo intensity recorded in the 8 December 2025 earthquake?

Answer: D. The maximum shindo intensity was upper 6, recorded in Hachinohe.

90. The Army Service Corps is best described as which part of the Indian Army?

Answer: C. It is the oldest logistics branch of the Indian Army.

9 December 2025 open

91. Parveen Shaikh, a 2025 winner of the Sanctuary Wildlife Service Award, works to protect which species?

Answer: D. Her work centres on community-driven protection of the endangered Indian Skimmer along the National Chambal Sanctuary.

92. Who instituted the Sanctuary Wildlife Service Award?

Answer: B. The Sanctuary Nature Foundation set up this honour to recognise exceptional contributions to wildlife conservation.

93. What does the 'Nest Guardian' model for Indian Skimmer conservation chiefly involve?

Answer: E. Villagers were trained to guard nests, and nest survival climbed to close to 60%.

94. How often has the RBI told credit institutions to refresh Credit Information Reports?

Answer: C. Moving to weekly refreshes is meant to make credit data more accurate and timely.

95. What is the purpose of PaRRVA, introduced by SEBI?

Answer: A. It provides verified performance records so that intermediaries and finfluencers cannot mis-sell using inflated claims.

96. What is the minimum investment needed to participate in a Large Value Fund (LVF)?

Answer: D. An LVF requires at least ₹25 crore from an investor and is subject to lighter regulation.

97. The FIRST WOW! Credit Card is secured against what?

Answer: B. IDFC FIRST Bank issues this card against a fixed deposit, with a minimum deposit of ₹20,000.

98. Which factor mainly underpins the higher rabi sowing in 2025?

Answer: E. Weak La Niña conditions can bring a longer, colder winter, which suits rabi crops.

99. NITI Aayog says India must grow agriculture at roughly what annual rate to reach Viksit Bharat by 2042?

Answer: C. A steady 5% yearly growth in agriculture is needed to hit the 2042 Viksit Bharat goal.

100. How do Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) chiefly benefit farmers?

Answer: A. By mixing crops, livestock and fisheries, IFS makes small farmers' earnings steadier and more resilient.

101. Parveen Shaikh won the Sanctuary Wildlife Service Award 2025 for work on which bird?

Answer: B. Her work centred on the endangered Indian Skimmer.

102. How many Border Roads Organisation projects were inaugurated in the record single-day launch?

Answer: C. The Defence Minister inaugurated 125 BRO projects.

103. Who wrote Vande Mataram, the National Song of India?

Answer: B. The notes credit Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, in 1876.

104. Which system among the three Customs platforms handles e-filing and online payments for traders?

Answer: A. ICEGATE enables e-filing and online Customs payments.

105. NATGRID functions under which ministry?

Answer: B. The notes call it a real-time intelligence platform under the MHA.

10 December 2025 open

106. What made the May 2024 solar storm (Gannon's storm) so unusually strong, according to Aditya-L1 observations?

Answer: E. When two CMEs collided on their way to Earth, a rare reconnection inside them amplified the storm, as Aditya-L1 and other satellites confirmed.

107. India and France held a trilateral air combat exercise over the Arabian Sea in December 2025 with which third country?

Answer: B. The Indian Air Force, French Air and Space Force and the UAE Air Force took part, deepening three-way defence cooperation.

108. SURYAKIRAN-XIX, the India–Nepal army exercise, mainly concentrated on:

Answer: C. Joint counter-terrorism drills and modern military technology were emphasised, in line with Chapter VII of the UN Charter.

109. Under the RBI's final guidelines on bank groups, how are overlapping lending activities between a bank and group entities treated?

Answer: A. Softening its draft, the RBI permits overlapping business provided there is board-level oversight and prudential safeguards.

110. At least what percentage of its gross income must come from financial assets for an entity to be classed as an NBFC?

Answer: D. The RBI requires both the financial assets and the income from them to be above 50% for NBFC classification.

111. Airpay obtained RBI approval as a cross-border payment aggregator under which framework?

Answer: A. Airpay finished every approval needed under the RBI's unified Payment Aggregator framework, which lets it handle international transactions.

112. The IMF recognises UPI as the world's largest real-time payment system on what basis?

Answer: C. The IMF noted that, counted by number of transactions, UPI is the biggest real-time retail payment system worldwide.

113. Why is Senna spectabilis regarded as ecologically damaging?

Answer: B. This invasive tree grows thick canopies that cut biodiversity and block forests from regenerating.

114. The India–Brazil MoU on dairy genomics mainly focuses on improving which animals?

Answer: D. The partnership addresses cattle and buffalo genomics, aiming at better milk yield, reproduction and climate resilience.

115. A key criticism of the Draft Seeds Bill 2025 is that it:

Answer: E. Experts say licensing concentrated at the Centre erodes state authority and overlooks local agro-climatic conditions.

116. By what percentage was UNEP's regular budget cut, as reported at UNEA-7?

Answer: A. UNEP's regular budget fell 20%; the separate Environment Fund contributions dropped 11-12%.

117. Amazon's total investment in India since 2010, mentioned in the December 2025 announcement, was about:

Answer: E. Amazon had invested USD 40 billion since 2010; the new USD 35 billion pledge runs to 2030.

118. Why is Lagrange Point 1 useful for the Aditya-L1 mission?

Answer: B. At L1 the craft is never blocked by Earth or Moon, so viewing is continuous.

119. Which three countries took part in the trilateral air combat exercise over the Arabian Sea in December 2025?

Answer: B. The IAF, French Air and Space Force and UAE Air Force took part.

120. Where was the 19th edition of the India-Nepal exercise SURYAKIRAN held?

Answer: A. SURYAKIRAN-XIX concluded at Pithoragarh in Uttarakhand.

11 December 2025 open

121. Boreendo, which UNESCO recently placed under safeguarding, belongs chiefly to which region?

Answer: E. It is a traditional clay vessel-flute of Sindh in Pakistan, tied to the Indus Valley Civilization and featured at the 20th ICH Committee session.

122. Where was India's first entirely home-built hydrogen fuel-cell vessel inaugurated?

Answer: C. Its launch took place on 11 December 2025 at Varanasi's Namo Ghat, as a push for cleaner inland waterway transport.

123. The World Inequality Report 2026 is brought out by which organisation?

Answer: A. The report comes from the World Inequality Lab, with economists such as Thomas Piketty among its editors.

124. What portion of India's national income goes to the top 10% of earners, per the World Inequality Report 2026?

Answer: E. The top tenth of earners take 58% of all national income, pointing to deep inequality.

125. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) revised its FY26 growth projection for India to what figure?

Answer: B. The bank raised its forecast citing robust household consumption and recent tax reductions.

126. Which transactions would be covered by the RBI's proposed forex transparency norms?

Answer: E. The draft asks for all charges on retail forex dealings to be disclosed across cash, TOM (next-day settlement) and spot deals.

127. Pension funds were recently allowed by PFRDA to put money into which additional asset class?

Answer: D. The regulator widened the investable universe to include gold and silver ETFs so portfolios can be better diversified.

128. Fitch Solutions expects the repo rate to stay at what level through FY27?

Answer: A. Fitch forecasts that the RBI will hold at 5.25% following the total rate reductions made during 2025.

129. Roughly what fraction of global greenhouse gas emissions comes from food systems?

Answer: E. Farming and food together are responsible for close to a third of worldwide greenhouse gas output.

130. Under Green Revolution 2.0, which paddy-field practice is advised to lower methane emissions?

Answer: B. Alternately flooding and drying paddy fields cuts methane release and also conserves water, in line with climate-smart farming.

131. Boreendo, safeguarded by UNESCO's heritage committee, is a traditional instrument from which region?

Answer: B. Boreendo comes from Sindh, Pakistan.

132. According to the World Inequality Report 2026, what share of India's national income goes to the top 10% of earners?

Answer: B. The report says the top 10% capture 58% of national income.

133. Where was the first India-Brunei JWG on Defence Cooperation held?

Answer: B. The inaugural meeting took place in New Delhi on 9 December 2025.

134. Which ministry released the draft questionnaire for ASUSE 2026?

Answer: B. MoSPI released the draft questionnaire.

135. Which company built India's first indigenous hydrogen fuel-cell vessel launched at Varanasi?

Answer: B. The pilot vessel was built by Cochin Shipyard Limited.

12 December 2025 open

136. What is the main objective of the Government of India's Working Paper on Generative AI and Copyright?

Answer: A. The paper sets out India's first structured framework meant to safeguard creators while permitting lawful AI development under the IndiaAI Mission.

137. Under which Intangible Cultural Heritage domain was Deepavali chiefly inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List?

Answer: C. As a living festival made up of rituals, social customs and shared celebrations, it belongs to the domain of social practices and festive events.

138. Which ministry implements the Shilp Didi Programme?

Answer: D. Implementation runs through the Office of the Development Commissioner (Handicrafts), which sits in the Ministry of Textiles.

139. What is the main goal of the planetary-defense drill centred on object 3I/ATLAS?

Answer: B. The exercise checks early warning, tracking, deflection plans, civil defence response and worldwide coordination for near-Earth objects.

140. Who jointly leads the planetary-defense exercise on 3I/ATLAS?

Answer: E. Coordination of the drill rests with the European Space Agency, NASA and the International Asteroid Warning Network of the UN.

141. Economists attribute the rupee's recent slide past ₹90 per dollar mainly to:

Answer: B. Trade deficits, FPI outflows and import demand are behind the fall, not any weakness in underlying fundamentals.

142. Which of these is a possible advantage of a weaker rupee?

Answer: D. Indian goods become cheaper for overseas buyers, which helps exporters and service industries.

143. How frequently is NABARD's Rural Economic Conditions and Sentiments Survey (RECSS) carried out?

Answer: C. RECSS is a frequent survey, run every two months, that tracks rural economic conditions and mood in near real time.

144. Under the revised RBI framework, businesses borrowing less than what amount may open current accounts with any bank (subject to conditions)?

Answer: E. To make doing business easier, the RBI lifted the limit from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore.

145. SEBI's new governance framework for Market Infrastructure Institutions requires them to appoint:

Answer: A. MIIs need one ED for Critical Operations and another for Regulation, Compliance & Risk, which tightens oversight and spreads power around.

146. Which US president, after Donald Trump's 2024 win, was named as the only earlier one with two non-consecutive terms?

Answer: C. Trump became the second president after Grover Cleveland, who won in 1892, to win two non-consecutive terms.

147. Why was Vinesh Phogat removed from the Paris 2024 women's wrestling final?

Answer: B. She was disqualified for exceeding the weight limit before the gold medal bout.

148. Which problem was NOT cited as a result of the Pagdi system?

Answer: A. Landlords earned too little under frozen low rents, which is why the system caused decay and stalled redevelopment.

149. What does CRCAT, proposed in the Generative AI and copyright working paper, stand for?

Answer: A. The notes define it as Copyright Royalties Collective for AI Training.

150. Deepavali was inscribed on which UNESCO list at the 20th Session of the Intergovernmental Committee in New Delhi?

Answer: B. Deepavali was added to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

13 December 2025 open

151. At which international forum was India's resolution on 'Strengthening the Global Management of Wildfires' adopted?

Answer: A. It was passed during the seventh United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA-7), which met in Nairobi, Kenya.

152. By 2050, how much does UNEP's 'Spreading Like Wildfire' report expect wildfires worldwide to increase?

Answer: E. Rises of 14% are expected by 2030, then 30% by mid-century and 50% by 2100, marking wildfires as a lasting climate threat.

153. Which of these is a central aim of the nuclear sector reforms cleared by the Union Cabinet?

Answer: C. The changes intend to bring in private participation, simplify liability rules and draw investment into civil nuclear power.

154. What is DSC A20, recently commissioned into the Indian Navy, chiefly built for?

Answer: E. A specialised Diving Support Craft, it handles underwater inspection, repair and salvage close to the coast.

155. In which year did the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) come into force in India?

Answer: C. Passed in 1999, FEMA took effect on 1 June 2000 and replaced the stricter FERA of 1973.

156. How are transactions for buying immovable property overseas classified under FEMA?

Answer: A. Capital account transactions create assets or liabilities, for example foreign property, FDI and ECBs.

157. How many Executive Directors has SEBI told Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) to appoint?

Answer: D. MIIs must have two full-time EDs, one overseeing critical operations and the other handling regulation, compliance and risk.

158. The Insurance Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 would raise the FDI cap for insurance companies to what level?

Answer: B. The proposal lets foreigners own insurers outright, aiming to attract global capital and modernise the industry.

159. Which description fits copra?

Answer: E. Copra is the white flesh of ripe coconuts after it has been dried in the sun or by artificial means.

160. Which body recommends the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for copra?

Answer: C. CACP makes the MSP recommendation and the CCEA approves it, giving farmers a stable income.

161. How much did the value of India's gold reserves rise in the week ended 5 December 2025?

Answer: B. Gold reserves rose by $1.033 billion to $106.984 billion.

162. The Williamnagar soil lake covers roughly how much area?

Answer: A. The lake covers about 0.5 hectare and stores nearly 10,000 cubic metres.

163. Roughly how many Gati Shakti Cargo Terminal locations are commissioned across India, as told to the Rajya Sabha?

Answer: A. About 120 GCT locations are commissioned nationwide; 86 is the monthly rake count at Jakhapura.

164. The Raipur National Transgender Sports Meet is described as the first national platform for transgender athletes in roughly how long?

Answer: B. It is the first such national platform in nearly a decade.

165. Which weather factor was among the causes cited for the 13 December 2025 pollution spike in Delhi-NCR?

Answer: B. A weak Western Disturbance, with low wind speed and higher moisture, trapped pollutants near the ground.

14 & 15 December 2025 open

166. Which long-term goal is the SHANTI Bill, 2025 chiefly designed to achieve?

Answer: B. The Bill clears the way for large nuclear expansion toward 100 GW of capacity by 2047, matching India's long-run energy transition aims.

167. Who introduced the Atomic Energy Bill, 2025 (the SHANTI Bill)?

Answer: D. It was brought by the Department of Atomic Energy, which reports straight to the Prime Minister's Office.

168. Where does India stand in the Stanford Global AI Vibrancy Index 2025?

Answer: E. India moved up to third place worldwide from seventh earlier, showing quick progress in AI readiness and ecosystem development.

169. The Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 proposes to replace which of the following bodies? 1. UGC 2. AICTE 3. NCTE

Answer: C. UGC, AICTE and NCTE would give way to one overarching higher education regulator, consistent with NEP 2020.

170. Which newly designated Ramsar site is in the buffer zone of Sariska Tiger Reserve?

Answer: A. Siliserh Lake in Rajasthan lies in the buffer area of Sariska and is home to rich biodiversity, including endangered species.

171. What was the main reason for setting up Regional Rural Banks?

Answer: C. They were created to close the gap between what rural areas needed in credit and what formal banking provided, particularly for farmers and artisans.

172. In the three-way ownership of RRBs, which entity has the biggest stake?

Answer: E. The Centre owns 50%, sponsor banks hold 35% and state governments the remaining 15%.

173. SEBI's proposed margin reforms seek to reduce which margin component for hedged positions on non-expiry days?

Answer: D. SEBI is weighing a cut in ELM from 2% to a range of 0.5–1% for hedged positions on such days, to encourage longer-term trades.

174. The Borole family's ATM (Any Time Money) model is centred on:

Answer: A. This model backs mixed farming so that income arrives all year round and risk is spread.

175. Which institution launched the JIVA Programme supporting natural farming in Marathwada?

Answer: B. NABARD started JIVA to encourage agroecological and climate-resilient farming practices.

176. Which state government portfolio does Nitin Nabin currently hold?

Answer: D. He is Bihar's Public Works Department minister.

177. Which two office-bearers of the Press Club of India were elected unopposed?

Answer: A. The Treasurer, Aditi Rajput, and the Joint Secretary, P R Sunil, were elected without opposition.

178. By which year does the SHANTI Bill aim for 100 GW of nuclear power in India?

Answer: D. The bill targets 100 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047.

179. Which university publishes the Global AI Vibrancy Index in which India ranked third in 2025?

Answer: B. The index is issued by Stanford University.

180. Which three statutory bodies would the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 replace?

Answer: A. The Bill replaces the UGC, AICTE and NCTE with one framework.

16 December 2025 open

181. Compared with MGNREGA, what basic change does the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 propose?

Answer: C. Instead of a demand-driven entitlement, work becomes supply-driven, depending on Central notification and fixed budgets.

182. How many days of employment per rural household does the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 guarantee?

Answer: E. The guarantee goes up from the 100 days under MGNREGA to 125 days a year for each household.

183. Which existing body would the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill, 2025 replace?

Answer: D. A new apex regulator for higher education would take over from the University Grants Commission (UGC).

184. Which trend is correct as per PLFS for November 2025?

Answer: A. The jobless rate eased to 4.7% and LFPR climbed to 55.8%, a sign that more people were absorbed into work.

185. What chiefly explains the sharp narrowing of India's trade deficit in November 2025?

Answer: D. A steep fall of about 60% year on year in gold imports shrank the merchandise trade gap considerably.

186. The SHANTI Bill, 2025 deals with reform in which sector?

Answer: B. It overhauls India's nuclear energy sector by admitting private and foreign players and revising liability rules.

187. Which Indian sector is seen as most exposed to the EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)?

Answer: E. Indian cement exports are carbon-heavy, so they face the biggest CBAM exposure among domestic sectors.

188. Mutations in which gene are chiefly linked to artemisinin resistance in malaria?

Answer: D. Changes in kelch13 slow the clearance of parasites from the blood and are tied to resistance against artemisinin.

189. Which issue does the Right to Disconnect Bill, 2025 mainly address?

Answer: A. It would give employees a legal right to switch off from work messages outside their working hours.

190. The Bison Horn Maria dance belongs to which tribe?

Answer: D. The Dandami Maria people of Bastar in Chhattisgarh perform this dance.

191. Which statement about Sai Jadhav is correct?

Answer: D. She is the first woman to reach the Territorial Army through IMA; she is a fourth-generation uniformed family member.

192. Who signed Punjab's Holy City notification dated 16 December 2025?

Answer: B. Additional Chief Secretary (Home) Alok Shekhar signed it, with the Governor's approval.

193. The VB-G RAM G Bill proposes to replace which existing law?

Answer: A. The Bill would replace the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.

194. How long is the empanelment of heritage conservation architects for ASI monuments valid?

Answer: D. Empanelment lasts three years with annual performance reviews.

195. Emperor Perumbidugu Mutharaiyar II, honoured with a commemorative stamp, is also known as what?

Answer: A. His other names are Suvaran Maran and Shatrubhayankar.

17 December 2025 open

196. The recent FSSAI drive on egg safety was triggered by worries about which banned substance?

Answer: D. Testing of egg samples began after reports that nitrofurans, a prohibited antimicrobial with cancer risk, had turned up in eggs.

197. Which description fits HAMMER (AASM), which was in the news?

Answer: B. Standing for Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range, it turns ordinary bombs into smart precision munitions that can be released from a distance.

198. How will HAMMER weapons be jointly produced in India?

Answer: D. India and France agreed on a 50:50 venture between Bharat Electronics Limited and Safran for domestic manufacture.

199. Exercise EKUVERIN is held between India and which country?

Answer: A. It is a two-nation drill involving the Indian Army and the Maldives National Defence Forces (MNDF).

200. To what level did the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025 raise the FDI cap for insurers?

Answer: E. The cap in the insurance sector goes from 74% up to 100%, intended to draw capital and sharpen competition.

201. Under the new PFRDA regulations, how much can be borrowed against an NPS corpus?

Answer: B. PFRDA permits a lien on up to 25% of what the subscriber has personally contributed, matching the partial withdrawal limit.

202. The rupee moving past ₹91 per dollar in 2025 was chiefly linked to:

Answer: C. Heavy FPI outflows, climbing US bond yields and global risk aversion weighed on emerging-market currencies, including the rupee.

203. Which objective does the RBI's use of a currency swap mainly serve?

Answer: C. The central bank takes dollars and hands out rupees in a swap, which adds liquidity and steadies financial markets.

204. What is the main cause of unclaimed bank deposits in India?

Answer: E. Inactive accounts, absent nominee information, stale KYC and deposits left after an account holder's death are the main causes.

205. SEBI's proposed overhaul of the mutual fund Total Expense Ratio (TER) is mainly meant to:

Answer: A. The TER proposal tries to cut brokerage and transaction costs, boosting long-term returns and clarity for investors.

206. Homebound won second runner-up in which award at the Toronto International Film Festival?

Answer: B. It was second runner-up for the International Audience Choice Award at TIFF.

207. The red table-top markings on the wildlife-safe road are made of which material and thickness?

Answer: A. The markings are 5 mm thick hot-applied thermoplastic layers that alert drivers to slow down.

208. A commissioner of the Central Information Commission holds office for the term set by the Centre or until which age, whichever is earlier?

Answer: C. The tenure ends at the fixed term or age 65, whichever comes first, and reappointment is not allowed.

209. Which body began collecting egg samples after the viral nitrofuran claim?

Answer: B. The food regulator FSSAI started sampling the egg brand.

210. India's December 2025 pact on the HAMMER (AASM) weapon is with which French company?

Answer: C. India signed the agreement with France's Safran.

18 December 2025 open

211. Which country topped the global doping list for a third straight year in the WADA Testing Figures Report 2024?

Answer: C. With 260 positive cases, India led the world's doping tally for the third year running, the WADA report for 2024 shows.

212. Anti-doping testing in India is the statutory responsibility of which organisation?

Answer: A. NADA is the statutory authority that carries out and enforces anti-doping testing in the country.

213. Which platform powers India's first AI-based community screening programme for Diabetic Retinopathy?

Answer: E. AFMS launched the programme, which relies on MadhuNetrAI to detect and grade diabetic retinopathy.

214. Who has launched RESPOND Basket 2025?

Answer: B. ISRO, under the Department of Space, issued it to promote academic research linked to its missions.

215. How many Param Vir Chakra recipients are portrayed in the 'Param Vir Dirgha' inaugurated on Vijay Diwas 2025?

Answer: E. The gallery features portraits of all 21 awardees of the Param Vir Chakra, the country's top wartime gallantry honour.

216. Which new concept has SEBI brought in to replace the TER framework for mutual funds?

Answer: D. The Base Expense Ratio reflects only the core cost of managing the fund and leaves out statutory levies.

217. Under SEBI's revised norms, the brokerage allowed on cash market trades by mutual funds is now capped at what level?

Answer: A. The cash market brokerage cap was halved from 12 basis points to 6 basis points to cut costs for funds.

218. What is the new maximum lump sum PFRDA permits an NPS subscriber to withdraw?

Answer: D. Subscribers may take out up to 80% of the corpus, while the remaining 20% must be used to buy an annuity.

219. Under the revised NPS rules, a subscriber can withdraw the entire corpus if it is no more than what amount?

Answer: B. Because of minimum annuity purchase rules, the cut-off for complete withdrawal has gone up to ₹8 lakh.

220. Which company rolled out India's first biometric authentication for UPI payments?

Answer: A. Amazon Pay lets users pay without entering a PIN, using their fingerprint or face to authenticate.

221. Ram Sutar was a gold medallist of which art institution?

Answer: B. He was a gold medallist of the Sir JJ School of Art and Architecture, Mumbai.

222. Roughly how much gas does the deal cover over its lifetime?

Answer: B. The deal covers around 130 billion cubic metres of gas.

223. Who presented the Order of Oman to PM Modi?

Answer: A. Sultan Haitham bin Tarik, who is also Oman's Prime Minister, presented the honour; Qaboos instituted the order in 1970.

224. How many consecutive years has India topped the WADA doping chart as per the 2024 report?

Answer: A. The notes say it was the third consecutive year at No. 1.

225. Which AI platform powers the AFMS diabetic retinopathy screening programme?

Answer: A. The notes say the programme is powered by MadhuNetrAI.

19 December 2025 open

226. Which country of the Indian subcontinent is mainly worried by the Taliban's plan to divert water from the Kunar River?

Answer: B. Pakistan fears lower downstream flows would hit irrigation, drinking water and hydropower in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, since the Kunar is a shared river.

227. Into which major river system does the Kunar River eventually drain?

Answer: E. The Kunar flows into the Kabul River, which in turn joins the Indus close to Attock.

228. Which rhino species is listed as Vulnerable, going by the conservation status given?

Answer: C. The Indian rhino is rated Vulnerable, whereas the Javan, Sumatran and Black rhinos are Critically Endangered.

229. In which year will India hold the BRICS presidency?

Answer: E. Brazil has formally passed the BRICS chair to India for 2026.

230. Which organisation developed the DHRUV64 microprocessor?

Answer: B. The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing built it, under MeitY.

231. DHRUV64 belongs to which indigenous processor programme?

Answer: A. It is the third processor in the DIR-V programme, following THEJAS32 and THEJAS64.

232. Which age group is the main focus of the ULLAS scheme?

Answer: C. The scheme works on adult literacy for people who are 15 or older.

233. How many existing Acts is the Securities Markets Code Bill, 2025 meant to replace?

Answer: D. The SCRA of 1956, the SEBI Act of 1992 and the Depositories Act of 1996 would all be superseded.

234. Which new mechanism does the Securities Markets Code Bill, 2025 propose to assist investors?

Answer: D. An ombudsperson is introduced so that investors can get their disputes settled more quickly.

235. The Securities Markets Code Bill, 2025 proposes a functional separation within which institution?

Answer: A. Fact-finding is to be kept apart from enforcement and adjudication inside SEBI, for greater transparency.

236. Which requirement applies to platform aggregators under the Jharkhand gig workers law?

Answer: B. All platform aggregators must register with the Gig Workers' Welfare Board, which the labour minister chairs.

237. The Kunar River is called by what name in Pakistan?

Answer: B. The notes say it is known as the Chitral River in Pakistan.

238. Which ministry runs the ULLAS adult literacy programme?

Answer: A. ULLAS is a Ministry of Education scheme launched in 2022.

239. Which organisation released 'Bhasha Matters: The State of the Education Report for India 2025'?

Answer: A. UNESCO released the report.

20 December 2025 open

240. Which satellite will ISRO's LVM3–M6 mission, planned for December 2025, put into orbit?

Answer: D. Using LVM3 on 24 December 2025, ISRO is to launch the BlueBird communication satellite of the US firm AST SpaceMobile.

241. India's role in which field is highlighted by the BlueBird satellite launch?

Answer: B. Putting up a heavy American commercial satellite shows ISRO is gaining ground in the worldwide market for launches.

242. At which event was the Traditional Medicine Global Library (TMGL) unveiled?

Answer: E. The library debuted as the second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine in New Delhi came to a close.

243. Data from how many countries does the TMGL hold on traditional medicine?

Answer: C. This worldwide digital repository gathers traditional medicine knowledge from 194 countries.

244. In which Indian city is the WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine based?

Answer: A. Jamnagar in Gujarat is where India houses the WHO's global centre dedicated to traditional medicine.

245. The RBI has cleared a move away from a flat-rate deposit insurance premium to what system?

Answer: D. Under the approved framework, how much a bank pays as premium will depend on how risky it is.

246. What share of SEBI's yearly surplus must go to the reserve fund under the proposed Securities Markets Code (SMC)?

Answer: B. The SMC requires a quarter of the annual surplus to be set aside in a reserve fund, limited to two years' worth of spending.

247. China's WTO complaint against India mainly concerns tariffs in which sector?

Answer: E. China contends that India's ICT tariffs, along with its solar subsidies, break WTO rules.

248. What maximum share of controlled funds has IRDAI proposed insurers may put into debt of public infrastructure SPVs?

Answer: D. Insurers could invest up to a fifth of their controlled funds in debt issued by operational public infrastructure SPVs.

249. EPFO has clarified that a gap between jobs of up to how many days leaves ₹50,000 EDLI cover unaffected?

Answer: A. Breaks of up to 60 days, weekends and holidays included, are not counted as a lapse in service for EDLI.

250. Which US military personnel were killed in the 13 December ISIS attack that preceded the operation?

Answer: B. The attack killed two Iowa National Guard members and a US civilian interpreter.

251. In the India–Oman CEPA, Oman removed customs duties on what share of tariff lines?

Answer: C. Oman removed duties on 98.08% of tariff lines, covering 99.38% of India's exports.

252. Which ISRO mission was set to launch the BlueBird Block-2 satellite?

Answer: C. The satellite was to go up on LVM3-M6.

253. The Traditional Medicine Global Library was launched at which event?

Answer: B. Modi launched TMGL at the closing of the 2nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine.

254. Which country released the logo for CBD COP17 featuring a blue butterfly?

Answer: A. Armenia released the COP17 logo with the Erivan Anomalous Blue.

21 & 22 December 2025 open

255. Which method will Tamil Nadu's statewide Hornbill Population Survey mainly use to estimate population density?

Answer: B. Line transects walked with daily tracking will log hornbill sightings, letting density be estimated in a scientific way.

256. Which tiger reserve is part of Phase-1 of Tamil Nadu's Hornbill Population Survey?

Answer: C. Phase-1 takes in Anamalai, Srivilliputhur–Megamalai and Kalakkad–Mundathurai, chosen because of earlier hornbill sightings.

257. Which institution exclusively maintains the Snow White duck breed revived in Kuttanad?

Answer: A. Niranam Duck Farm developed the breed, and today only the DHAT Institute at Manjadi keeps it.

258. India's MoU with the Netherlands on maritime heritage mainly backs which project?

Answer: D. The agreement concerns cooperation on building the NMHC at Lothal, which showcases India's ancient seafaring history.

259. Which concept replaces the Total Expense Ratio under SEBI's new mutual fund regulations?

Answer: A. BER takes the place of TER and aims to be more transparent by keeping core fund costs apart from taxes and transaction charges.

260. SEBI's Stockbroker Regulations, 2025 lower the maximum spot market brokerage to:

Answer: C. The ceiling was brought down from 8.59 bps to 6 bps to cut costs for investors.

261. Per RBI data, why did credit cards' share of total retail loans fall?

Answer: B. Steeper risk weights and stricter rules on unsecured credit made banks slow down card growth.

262. How much sovereign lending has the Asian Development Bank (ADB) committed to India for 2025?

Answer: D. The ADB announced this amount for areas such as skills, renewable energy, urban services and transport.

263. Telangana's cotton growers cannot realise MSP mainly because of:

Answer: E. Heavy, out-of-season rain spoiled fibre quality so much of the crop did not qualify for MSP buying.

264. India's average cotton yield of about 448 kg/ha is best characterised as:

Answer: E. More than 20 countries get higher productivity, placing India's cotton yield near the bottom worldwide.

265. Which Prime Minister announced National Mathematics Day in December 2011 at Madras University?

Answer: B. Manmohan Singh announced it to mark Ramanujan's 125th birth anniversary.

266. Why are hornbills called the farmers of the forest?

Answer: B. Hornbills disperse seeds widely, helping forests regenerate.

267. India signed a maritime heritage MoU with which country in December 2025?

Answer: B. The MoU was with the Netherlands.

268. Which article empowers each House of Parliament to frame its rules of procedure, governing PMBs?

Answer: D. Article 118 gives each House power to make procedure rules, which govern PMBs.

269. Which department launched Good Governance Week 2025?

Answer: A. DARPG launched the week and issued guidelines.

23 & 24 December 2025 open

270. The Doha Declaration 2025, adopted at COSP-11 of UNCAC, centres on using what to fight corruption?

Answer: E. It stresses harnessing AI, advanced analytics and digital governance tools to prevent, detect and tackle corruption worldwide.

271. Which pair of laws does the SHANTI Act, 2025 replace?

Answer: C. By repealing both earlier statutes on nuclear regulation and liability, the Act puts them under a single framework.

272. Which players does the SHANTI Act, 2025 allow into India's civil nuclear sector?

Answer: A. Indian private companies and joint ventures can enter, but companies incorporated abroad are specifically kept out.

273. What triggered the #SaveAravalli campaign?

Answer: D. Protection would extend only to landforms 100 metres or higher under the definition the Court accepted, raising environmental alarm.

274. The Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025 promises how many days of work a year to each rural household?

Answer: B. The Act raises the earlier statutory guarantee to a minimum of 125 days annually for every household.

275. Why is Lothal, the site planned for the National Maritime Heritage Complex, historically important?

Answer: E. Lothal, an Indus Valley Civilization town, is known for a sophisticated dockyard dating to roughly 2400 BCE.

276. An RBI staff study found which asset to be the steadiest when geopolitical risk is elevated?

Answer: C. Gold turned out to be least affected by geopolitical shocks, confirming its safe-haven status.

277. In the RBI study, which asset reacted most strongly to geopolitical shocks?

Answer: A. Oil prices swing sharply when tensions rise because of supply disruptions and sanctions.

278. What approval did the RBI grant Mswipe Technologies in December 2025?

Answer: D. The payment aggregator licence lets Mswipe run merchant payment aggregation both online and in physical stores under a single framework.

279. Which technology does the RuPay SIB Paytag from South Indian Bank rely on?

Answer: B. The tag supports secure tap-to-pay at point-of-sale terminals as well as on online platforms through NFC.

280. Where was COSP-11 to the UN Convention against Corruption held in December 2025?

Answer: B. The conference took place in Doha, Qatar.

281. Which law does the SHANTI Act, 2025 replace along with the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010?

Answer: A. The notes say it replaces the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the 2010 liability Act.

282. Under the new Aravalli definition accepted by the Supreme Court, hills must rise at least how high above local relief?

Answer: C. The new definition requires hills of 100 m or more above local relief.

283. The Viksit Bharat-G RAM G Act, 2025 replaces which earlier law?

Answer: A. The Act replaces the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.

284. Under which IMF facility did Sri Lanka receive USD 206 million after Cyclone Ditwah?

Answer: A. The aid came under the Rapid Financing Instrument.

25 & 26 December 2025 open

285. How many branches may foreign banks open in India over four years under the Financial Services Annex of the India–New Zealand FTA?

Answer: D. The annex lets foreign banks set up as many as 15 branches in four years, above the 12-branch ceiling in WTO-GATS commitments.

286. Which Indian digital public infrastructure is highlighted for cross-border payment cooperation in the India–New Zealand FTA?

Answer: B. The annex encourages real-time payment cooperation, drawing on UPI and NPCI to make cross-border transactions interoperable.

287. In which city is Rashtra Prerna Sthal, opened by the Prime Minister, situated?

Answer: E. It has been built on Hardoi Road, close to the Gomti river.

288. What is the main purpose of the SWAMIH-2 Fund announced by the Union Government?

Answer: B. This ₹15,000 crore fund gives last-mile finance so that stuck housing projects can be finished.

289. In which state is Bhoramdeo Temple, planned for development like the Kashi Vishwanath Corridor, located?

Answer: D. The ancient temple stands in Kabirdham district and is known as the 'Khajuraho of Chhattisgarh'.

290. How many existing laws are merged by the Securities Markets Code, 2025?

Answer: C. SCRA, the SEBI Act and the Depositories Act are folded into one single framework.

291. What is the new maximum size of the SEBI Board under the Securities Markets Code, 2025?

Answer: E. The Code enlarges the board from 9 to 15 members, bringing in more expertise and stronger governance oversight.

292. What is the reason behind the RBI's plan to infuse about ₹3 trillion of durable liquidity into the banking system?

Answer: A. Intervention to support the rupee sucked out rupee liquidity, so a large infusion is needed to make up for it.

293. When EPS contributions are wrongly deposited for an ineligible employee, where is the amount transferred?

Answer: A. EPFO shifts such wrongly deposited amounts, along with interest, to the member's PF account and corrects the service records.

294. Which asset did an RBI staff study find to be the most stable during periods of geopolitical tension?

Answer: C. The study found gold the least sensitive to geopolitical shocks, confirming its standing as a safe-haven asset.

295. In which city is the Rashtra Prerna Sthal located?

Answer: A. The memorial is in Lucknow, near the Gomti river.

296. According to BNEF, India reclaimed which rank in the global wind market in 2025?

Answer: C. India is behind only China and the US, so third.

297. What is the size of the SWAMIH-2 Fund the Union government is set to operationalise?

Answer: C. The SWAMIH-2 Fund is worth ₹15,000 crore.

298. Bhoramdeo Temple is situated in which district of Chhattisgarh?

Answer: B. Bhoramdeo lies in Kabirdham district, about 125 km from Raipur.

299. On which date is PESA Day observed every year?

Answer: B. PESA Day falls on 24 December.

27 December 2025 open

300. By what year does India aim to eliminate malaria completely?

Answer: A. The national goal is a malaria-free country by 2030, with no locally acquired cases by 2027.

301. Who gets to approve the opening or reopening of coal mines under the amended Colliery Control Rules?

Answer: E. Prior approval from the CCO is no longer required, so company boards decide once legal clearances are in hand.

302. Which startup built India's first indigenous 1.5-Tesla MRI scanner?

Answer: B. Zoho-backed VoxelGrids developed the scanner, in support of Atmanirbhar Bharat in healthcare.

303. From which year will India chair the Kimberley Process?

Answer: E. India's chairmanship starts on 1 January 2026, which should strengthen ethical trade in diamonds.

304. Heavy nitrate contamination of groundwater chiefly endangers which area?

Answer: D. Water laced with nitrates can cause serious illness, and the problem is tied to fertiliser use and poor waste handling.

305. Who painted the mural, now deteriorating, at the LIC headquarters in Mumbai?

Answer: A. M. F. Husain painted it in 1963, and its decay shows how hard public art is to preserve in India.

306. For what violation did IRDAI penalise Reliance General Insurance?

Answer: D. The ₹1 crore penalty was for unlawful payments that breached insurance rules.

307. India's insurance sector will adopt which accounting standard from 2026?

Answer: B. Ind AS 117 is expected to bring greater transparency and risk-based valuation to insurers.

308. The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) is chiefly intended to strengthen which area?

Answer: E. It funds storage, cold chains and logistics so that losses after harvest are reduced.

309. What was the main reason farmers' incomes fell even though monsoons were good?

Answer: D. Losses from floods and market rates under the MSP cut into farm earnings and caused distress in rural areas.

310. PMGSY, the rural road scheme, was launched on which date?

Answer: B. The notes give 25 December 2000 as the launch date.

311. Which department's five digital initiatives were launched on Good Governance Day 2025?

Answer: A. The notes say they were DoPT initiatives launched by Jitendra Singh.

312. Which ministry implements the PM-VIKAS scheme?

Answer: A. PM-VIKAS is implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs.

313. From which country will India take over the Kimberley Process chair in 2026?

Answer: B. The UAE is the outgoing Chair.

314. From which submarine was the K-4 missile test-fired in December 2025?

Answer: A. The test was from INS Arighaat, the second SSBN.

28 & 29 December 2025 open

315. Which description fits KAVACH, which was in the news?

Answer: D. It is Indian Railways' homegrown Automatic Train Protection system, built to stop collisions, overspeeding and signals passed at danger (SPAD).

316. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the KAVACH system?

Answer: E. Its job is safety, such as braking and avoiding collisions, rather than planning routes or timetables.

317. Which ministry set up the Passenger Assistance Control Room (PACR)?

Answer: C. The Ministry of Civil Aviation runs this round-the-clock control room for handling grievances and emergencies.

318. Under which mission was the PARAM Rudra supercomputer, inaugurated at IIT Patna, developed?

Answer: A. PARAM Rudra comes under the National Supercomputing Mission, which seeks to build up India's high-performance computing capacity.

319. On the banks of which river does Gandikota Canyon, called the 'Grand Canyon of India', lie?

Answer: C. The Penna (Pennar) river carved this gorge in Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh.

320. To what level did the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025 raise the FDI limit in insurance companies?

Answer: E. The cap rises from 74% to 100% via the automatic route, intended to bring in global capital and expertise.

321. Which regulator gets enhanced powers under the Insurance Amendment Bill, 2025?

Answer: D. IRDAI can now probe violations, check mis-selling and push for more transparency.

322. How has the RBI classified Aryaman Finance (India) Limited?

Answer: A. AFIL is a non-deposit-taking NBFC within the Investment and Credit Company category.

323. What does bancassurance mean?

Answer: B. In this model, banks use their branch networks to distribute insurance products.

324. Which organisation gave PayNearby its TPAP licence to operate UPI services?

Answer: B. Third Party Application Providers for UPI payments are authorised by NPCI.

325. Kavach is which type of system developed for Indian Railways?

Answer: A. Kavach is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection system.

326. Which ministry established the 24x7 Passenger Assistance Control Room (PACR)?

Answer: B. MoCA set up the PACR.

327. Which organisation developed the PARAM Rudra supercomputer inaugurated at IIT Patna?

Answer: B. PARAM Rudra was developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).

328. PRAGATI, the governance platform, was launched in which year?

Answer: B. The notes state it was launched in 2015.

329. Gandikota Canyon was carved by which river?

Answer: C. The notes say the Penna (Pennar) River carved the gorge.

30 & 31 December 2025 open

330. What makes the India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement (FTA) unique?

Answer: C. It is the first FTA of India with enforceable timelines and clawback clauses on investment pledges, creating accountability if promised FDI falls short.

331. How is INSV Kaundinya best described?

Answer: E. It is a rebuilt ancient-style ship whose planks are stitched with cords, modelled on depictions in 5th-century Ajanta caves.

332. Which two states formally joined Ayushman Bharat – PMJAY in 2025?

Answer: C. Odisha and Delhi came on board AB-PMJAY that year, widening the scheme's reach across the country.

333. In which state is the Parvati–Arga Bird Sanctuary, newly notified as an Eco-Sensitive Zone, situated?

Answer: A. The sanctuary lies in Gonda district, Uttar Pradesh, and also holds Ramsar Wetland status.

334. Batadrava Than, recently redeveloped and inaugurated, is linked to which tradition?

Answer: E. Srimanta Sankardev established it, and it is regarded as the birthplace of Assam's Neo-Vaishnavite movement.

335. India recently moved up to a new rank among the world's largest economies by GDP, overtaking which country?

Answer: C. Overtaking Japan, India is now the fourth-largest economy, with GDP of roughly USD 4.18 trillion.

336. Which category had the largest number of fraud cases in the RBI's 'Trend and Progress of Banking in India 2024–25'?

Answer: E. Card and Internet frauds made up about 66.8% of all cases by count, the largest share of any type.

337. What does Clause 124 of the proposed Securities Markets Code, 2025 deal with?

Answer: C. It requires SEBI's surplus to flow to the Consolidated Fund of India after a limited reserve is kept, which has prompted worries about the regulator's autonomy.

338. Which authority regulates Special Situation Funds (SSFs), proposed to be brought under the SARFAESI Act?

Answer: A. SSFs are Category I Alternative Investment Funds under SEBI that concentrate on stressed and distressed assets.

339. What does IS 19262:2025, recently issued by the government, cover?

Answer: D. It is the country's first standard devoted to the quality and safety of electric agricultural tractors, encouraging clean farm mechanisation.

340. How much FDI has New Zealand committed under the India–New Zealand FTA by 2030?

Answer: A. The commitment is $20 billion by 2030 across 118 sectors.

341. INSV Kaundinya's design draws inspiration from which source?

Answer: B. The notes cite 5th-century CE Ajanta cave paintings.

342. What is the annual health cover per family under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY?

Answer: D. AB-PMJAY gives up to ₹5 lakh per family per year.

343. In which state is the Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary, recently notified as an Eco-Sensitive Zone?

Answer: B. The sanctuary is in Gonda district, Uttar Pradesh.

344. What is India's global rank in rare earth reserves according to this news?

Answer: D. India is the world's third-largest holder, at about 6.9 MT.

‹ Back to December 2025