1. Which one of these is not a hurdle in setting up Early Warning Systems across the Himalayan region?
Answer: C. Himalayan slopes are steep and broken, so flat uniform land is not available. Every other listed item is a genuine obstacle to building these systems.
2. Which law does the privacy framework of Aadhaar Vision 2032 seek to be consistent with?
Answer: B. The Vision 2032 plan states it will bring its data protection and privacy safeguards in line with the DPDP Act of 2023.
3. On what day of the year is the Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak presented?
Answer: E. The medal is given each year on Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's birth anniversary, which is observed on 31 October.
4. Which city has been chosen to host Exercise MILAN in 2026?
Answer: D. Visakhapatnam will stage MILAN 2026 together with the IFR and the IONS Conclave, in line with India's MAHASAGAR vision.
5. Real-time tracking of glacier and glacial lake changes in the Himalayan early warning systems depends on which technology?
Answer: E. Satellite feeds track how glaciers move, how snow melts and how high glacial lakes rise, and this is central to the Himalayan warning network.
6. Why did the RBI turn down the bids in the auction of the 7-year bond?
Answer: A. Participants wanted a yield near 6.6%, a level the RBI judged too high, so the auction was scrapped.
7. Under the revised RBI norms, the Held-for-Trading (HFT) category has been folded into which category?
Answer: C. The central bank has absorbed HFT into FVTPL, so securities held for trading or managed on a fair-value basis now sit together there.
8. Household inflation expectations in 19 cities are captured by which RBI survey?
Answer: B. The IESH gathers what households in 19 cities expect for prices, and it feeds directly into monetary policy decisions.
9. Which pair of crops is the focus of the SMART-CROP project?
Answer: A. The initiative targets these two pulses mainly to build their resilience to climate stress.
10. Which app ecosystem supports enumeration and supervision in the Marine Fisheries Census 2025?
Answer: D. Three apps, VYAS-NAV, VYAS-BHARAT and VYAS-SUTRA, handle village validation, household counting and field supervision respectively.
11. Which source has the largest installed capacity within India's non-fossil mix of 256.09 GW?
Answer: E. Solar leads with 127.33 GW, well ahead of wind at 53.12 GW, nuclear at 45.25 GW and hydro at 30.29 GW.
12. India's relationship with ASEAN, as described by Rajnath Singh at the Kuala Lumpur meeting, is which kind of partnership?
Answer: B. Singh called the meeting a vital opportunity to expand the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership between India and ASEAN.
13. Chabahar is a key node of which trade corridor linking India, Iran, Russia and Europe?
Answer: D. Chabahar connects to the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
14. China's Tiangong space station, to which Shenzhou-21 was sent, was completed in which year?
Answer: D. The notes state Tiangong was completed in 2022 and serves as a permanent orbital research base.
15. In the Himalayan EWS discussion, what share of India's disasters fell in the Himalayas during 2013-2022?
Answer: C. The notes say 68 Himalayan incidents in 2013-2022 made up 44% of India's total.
31. What is the principal thrust of Sagarmala 2.0?
Answer: A. This Rs 75,000 crore programme is meant to modernise ports, raise their efficiency and make India a global maritime centre.
32. Which of these is a component of the Rs 70,000 crore maritime package that supplements Sagarmala 2.0?
Answer: C. The supporting package has a Maritime Development Fund of Rs 25,000 crore, plus Rs 20,000 crore each for shipbuilding assistance and shipping cluster development.
33. Fish from which river were recently found to carry high cadmium (Cd) and lead (Pb) levels?
Answer: E. A study detected both metals above permissible limits in a number of fish species from the Cauvery, which raises health concerns.
34. In which state does Pampadum Shola National Park lie?
Answer: A. It is the smallest national park in Kerala and sits in Idukki district close to the Tamil Nadu boundary.
35. To bring back the grasslands of Pampadum Shola, which invasive species was cleared?
Answer: C. Australian wattle, Acacia mearnsii, was taken out since it drains groundwater and crowds out native plants.
36. Exposure to which heavy metals is chiefly linked to nerve and kidney damage?
Answer: B. Build-up of Cd and Pb in the body can cause cancer as well as nervous system and kidney problems.
37. What does a growing short dollar forward book of the RBI signal?
Answer: B. With a short forward position, the RBI sells dollars for later delivery, which steadies the rupee without running down spot reserves.
38. After SEBI classed REIT units as equity, what is the most a mutual fund may put into one REIT issuer?
Answer: D. The new rule lets a fund place as much as ten percent of a scheme's corpus in any single REIT issuer.
39. NITI Aayog's roadmap titled Reimagining Agriculture mainly centres on bringing in which kinds of technology?
Answer: E. It stresses AI, IoT, digital twins, drones and bio-innovation as the means to transform farming by 2047.
40. An inquiry into crop insurance payouts of just Rs 1 concerns which scheme?
Answer: D. Farmers enrolled in the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana reported tiny payouts such as Rs 1, Rs 3 and Rs 5, which triggered the probe.
41. WSSD-2 in Doha was convened by which organisation?
Answer: D. The summit is a UN-convened global forum on social development.
42. Which pair of existing northeastern Ramsar sites was compared with Rowmari-Donduwa for bird diversity?
Answer: B. Rowmari-Donduwa was reported to have higher bird diversity than Deepor Beel and Loktak Lake.
43. What is the proposed size of Sagarmala 2.0?
Answer: C. Sagarmala 2.0 is a 10-year, ₹75,000-crore programme.
44. Which two heavy metals exceeded safety thresholds in Cauvery fish, according to the study?
Answer: B. Cadmium and lead were the primary contaminants.
45. Which is the smallest national park in Kerala?
Answer: C. The notes call Pampadum Shola Kerala's smallest national park at 1,300 hectares.
61. What special label has Brazil given to COP30, being held in Belem?
Answer: B. The host nation chose this name to draw attention to the actual state of the Amazon and to press for real climate steps instead of speeches.
62. Brazil unveiled which new fund at COP30 to pay for the protection of tropical forests?
Answer: D. TFFF is an investment vehicle designed to encourage keeping forests standing, and Brazil itself pledged $1 billion to it.
63. Which principle is central to India's AI Governance Guidelines?
Answer: E. Interpretability and transparency of LLMs is among the seven core principles that the guidelines lay down.
64. What is the chief purpose of the Household Income Survey 2026?
Answer: C. It will be the first Indian survey that measures income directly for every kind of household, sector and social group.
65. Which main difficulty surfaced when the Household Income Survey was piloted?
Answer: C. As many as 95% of those asked found the income questions intrusive, particularly those on taxes, bonuses and assets.
66. What is special about NISAR compared with other satellites?
Answer: A. NISAR is the first Earth observation satellite to carry two SAR systems, an L-band one from NASA and an S-band one from ISRO.
67. What worries the RBI about India's 10-year bond yields?
Answer: E. Despite rate cuts adding up to 100 bps, the 10-year yield has not come down, which affects borrowing costs and market stability.
68. Under which law can insolvency professionals, per the IBBI circular, seek release of attached assets?
Answer: D. The circular lets them apply to have assets freed that the ED had attached under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.
69. The NABARD-CEEW tie-up is meant to advance which farm sector goal?
Answer: A. The collaboration aims to spread climate-smart practices, lower risks and strengthen the ability of farms to cope with shocks.
70. Which of these was a cultural activity organised for Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh Pakhwada 2025?
Answer: B. States and Union Territories held programmes such as heritage rallies, dance and drama competitions, exhibitions and youth outreach.
71. Where was the 30th UN Climate Change Conference (COP30) held?
Answer: B. COP30 opened in Belém in the Brazilian Amazon.
72. How many core principles do the India AI Governance Guidelines outline?
Answer: D. The guidelines list seven principles, from Trust to Safety, Resilience and Sustainability.
73. What share of respondents in the August 2025 pilot of the Household Income Survey found questions intrusive?
Answer: D. The pilot found 95% of respondents considered the questions intrusive.
74. In the NISAR satellite, which radar band is contributed by ISRO?
Answer: D. NASA supplies the L-band radar; ISRO developed the S-band system.
75. How many punch-marked gold coins were found at the Kovilur Shiva temple in Tiruvannamalai district?
Answer: B. The notes record 103 coins in an earthen pot.
76. What constitutional distinction did the Centre draw in the Supreme Court on the subject of elections?
Answer: C. The Centre said the right to vote arises from statute, whereas the freedom of voting ties to the free expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a).
77. Which provision does the petition against uncontested elections mainly say is breached when no polling takes place?
Answer: E. Petitioners argued that without a poll, voters lose the chance to register dissent through NOTA, which infringes freedom of speech and expression.
78. The EAT-Lancet report says global food systems have crossed how many planetary boundaries?
Answer: C. Emissions, nutrient imbalance and water stress from food systems have pushed five of the six planetary boundaries past their limits.
79. In the EAT-Lancet report, which farming component adds the most to the nitrogen and phosphorus imbalance?
Answer: A. Farming centred on grains is the biggest source of nitrogen, phosphorus and water use that creates the imbalance.
80. To which class of naval ships does INS Ikshak belong?
Answer: D. INS Ikshak is the third Survey Vessel Large, a type used for hydrographic surveys and for humanitarian assistance and disaster relief.
81. Which of these is a main point in favour of Universal Basic Income (UBI) in India?
Answer: B. UBI is viewed as a rights-based and unconditional income floor available to every citizen.
82. SEBI raised the anchor investor share in IPOs from what to what?
Answer: E. The anchor book allocation was revised upward from 33 percent to 40 percent in order to encourage more institutional participation.
83. What is the main function of the Securities Lending and Borrowing (SLB) mechanism?
Answer: B. SLB lets investors lend out shares and makes short selling possible, with settlement guaranteed.
84. The WEF-identified deep-tech field that powers autonomous field operations is:
Answer: D. Robotics supports precision farming, self-operating machinery and swarm robot systems.
85. In FY 2024-25, how many rural households did PRADAN's livelihood initiative help to earn more than ₹1 lakh a year?
Answer: A. PRADAN backed five lakh rural households, which shows considerable headway in rural development.
86. According to the Centre in the Supreme Court, the right to vote is best described as which kind of right?
Answer: B. The Centre called it conferred by statute, not inherent.
87. According to the EAT-Lancet Commission Report, food systems drive how many of the six breached planetary boundaries?
Answer: D. The report says five of six.
88. INS Ikshak is which ship in the Survey Vessel Large series?
Answer: C. INS Ikshak is the third SVL commissioned into the Indian Navy.
89. The UBI pilot in Madhya Pradesh referred to in the notes was carried out with which organisation?
Answer: B. The Indian trial cited was by SEWA in Madhya Pradesh, 2011-13.
90. Which ministry runs the UDAN scheme?
Answer: D. UDAN is a Ministry of Civil Aviation scheme launched in 2016.
91. What is Google's Project Suncatcher chiefly trying to achieve?
Answer: E. The project from Google's AI and Advanced Infrastructure Division plans solar-powered AI data centres on satellites, tapping constant sunlight and easing the environmental load of ground-based facilities.
92. Ethiopia's decision to follow India's DAY-NRLM model is chiefly aimed at what?
Answer: A. Ethiopia wants to use the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-NRLM approach to improve rural livelihoods through self-help groups, financial inclusion and skilling, with women at the centre.
93. Which balance does the so-called Mamdani Model stress?
Answer: C. Drawing on Zohran Mamdani's welfare ideas, it proposes a Rawls-Pareto thermostat that pairs caring welfare with economic efficiency for fair and lasting growth.
94. The World Bank's Financial Sector Assessment 2025 points to which sign of progress in India's finance?
Answer: E. The assessment found the system more resilient, diverse and inclusive thanks to strong digital infrastructure and rising private involvement, although state-owned institutions still matter.
95. What is the main aim of the IBBI's new proposal concerning bidders in insolvency cases?
Answer: D. IBBI wants bidders to reveal who ultimately controls them, so the clean slate feature of the IBC cannot be misused.
96. What is the ceiling on voting rights that a shareholder can hold in an Indian private sector bank?
Answer: C. RBI rules bar any shareholder from voting more than 26% of the rights in a private bank, whatever the size of their holding, so no single investor dominates.
97. Which suggestion did the World Bank-IMF FSAP 2025 report make for India's financial sector?
Answer: D. It advises adopting borrower-focused macroprudential instruments, namely Debt Service to Income limits and Counter-Cyclical Capital Buffers, to withstand financial shocks better.
98. What is the theme of the FAO State of Food and Agriculture 2025 report?
Answer: B. Titled Addressing Land Degradation Across Landholding Scales, it shows how erosion, loss of nutrients and loss of carbon weaken food output and climate resilience.
99. The FAO says what share of the world's cropland is showing falling productivity?
Answer: A. Close to a fifth of global cropland is losing productivity because of degradation caused by people, notably in Asia, Africa and Latin America.
100. According to FAO's 2025 report, who holds most of the world's farmland?
Answer: B. The biggest one percent of farms hold more than 70% of farmland; they add heavily to monocropping and degradation yet have more resources for restoration.
101. Who announced on 24 January 1950 that Vande Mataram would receive honour equal to Jana Gana Mana?
Answer: D. Dr Rajendra Prasad made the statement, recognising the song's role in the freedom movement.
102. India's six consecutive Olympic hockey golds were won over which period?
Answer: B. The streak of six golds ran from 1928 to 1956.
103. Gogabeel is an important wintering site on which migratory route?
Answer: B. The lake is an important wintering location along the Central Asian Flyway.
104. Which company announced Project Suncatcher for space-based AI data centres?
Answer: A. Project Suncatcher is a Google initiative.
105. Which scheme did DAY-NRLM replace when it was launched in 2011 as NRLM?
Answer: B. NRLM restructured the earlier Swarnajayanti Grameen Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY).
106. India has joined the Tropical Forest Forever Facility (TFFF) as an observer. What is the TFFF mainly meant to do?
Answer: C. The TFFF is a worldwide initiative to raise money for safeguarding tropical forests, cutting carbon emissions and supporting sustainable forest management.
107. When and where was Vande Mataram first sung in public, and by whom?
Answer: E. Tagore sang it at the Calcutta Congress in 1896; Bankimchandra Chatterji had composed it in 1875, and it stands for Indian unity and cultural pride.
108. Where did the 29th Malabar Exercise, which INS Sahyadri took part in, take place?
Answer: A. The 29th Malabar, a Quad exercise of India, the US, Japan and Australia, was held in the western Pacific near Guam, with INS Sahyadri representing India.
109. Which of the following falls outside the regulation of both SEBI and RBI?
Answer: C. Digital gold sold by private players such as MMTC-PAMP, SafeGold and Augmont comes under general consumer laws, unlike the regulated SGBs, ETFs and EGRs.
110. The RBI's Open Market Operations (OMO) mainly consist of:
Answer: D. The RBI trades government securities to manage liquidity: buying them puts money into the system, while selling them pulls it out.
111. In banking, what does the CASA ratio measure?
Answer: E. It shows how much of a bank's deposits are cheap current and savings money; a higher figure points to stronger liquidity and profitability.
112. RBI data put India's Currency-to-GDP ratio at what level in October 2025?
Answer: D. The ratio was 11.11 percent in October 2025, a sign of lower cash usage and wider digital payments after demonetisation.
113. The Shree Anna Symposium highlighted the millet cultivation model of which state as a success?
Answer: B. Odisha was praised for doubling yields from 6 to 12 quintals per hectare, procuring millets at MSP (the only state to do so) and serving millets in school meals.
114. FAIFA's chief demand about the WHO COP11 on Tobacco Control concerns what?
Answer: A. FAIFA, the Federation of All India Farmer Associations, objected to being shut out of COP11 and cited FCTC Articles 17 and 18 on protecting tobacco growers' livelihoods.
115. In the recent discussions, which description of millets is correct?
Answer: B. Millets, also known as Shree Anna or Mandia, are dense in nutrients, need little water, suit organic farming and are promoted as superfoods.
116. What status will India hold in the Tropical Forest Forever Facility?
Answer: B. India announced it will join TFFF as an observer.
117. 3I/ATLAS is which numbered known interstellar object?
Answer: C. The notes call it the third known interstellar object.
118. Which Indian Navy ship took part in the Malabar exercise near Guam in November 2025?
Answer: A. INS Sahyadri represented India.
119. Which city hosted the first BIMSTEC-India Marine Research Network (BIMReN) conference?
Answer: C. Kochi hosted it from 4-6 November 2025.
120. Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the PM Internship Scheme?
Answer: D. The notes name the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as implementing ministry.
121. Which statement about Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh 2025 is correct?
Answer: A. The year honours Bhagwan Birsa Munda's 150th birth anniversary and the 150 years of 'Vande Mataram'. Its nodal ministry is MoTA and many institutions take part.
122. What did rural unemployment fall to in the July-September 2025 quarter, according to PLFS?
Answer: A. The rural jobless rate eased from 4.8% to 4.4% during that quarter.
123. Where is Exercise Malabar 2025 being held?
Answer: C. This year's edition takes place at Guam, a strategically important island territory of the United States.
124. Which measure comes into force once GRAP Stage III is invoked?
Answer: C. Stage III brings a construction ban, a ban on BS-III petrol and BS-IV diesel vehicles, and the closure of primary schools up to Class 5.
125. What minimum provision for Stage-II loans does the RBI's proposed ECL framework suggest?
Answer: D. The draft proposal lifts Stage-II provisioning to 5% from the earlier level of 0.4%.
126. What is the primary objective of the Bima Bharosa Platform?
Answer: E. Bima Bharosa is IRDAI's central grievance redressal platform, built to bring openness and timely resolution.
127. The partnership between Ageas Federal Life Insurance and Muthoot Microfin concentrates on which segment?
Answer: E. The tie-up wants to widen insurance coverage in rural, semi-urban and underserved markets.
128. For which category of banks is the Sahakar Digi Pay platform specially designed?
Answer: B. It is a payment platform integrating UPI, NEFT and RTGS that has been built specifically for UCBs.
129. Under which ministry is Watershed Mahotsav organised?
Answer: D. The event belongs to the National Watershed Conference conducted by the Department of Land Resources under the Rural Development ministry.
130. Which is a major emphasis of Watershed Mahotsav?
Answer: B. The festival concentrates on rainfed area development, rainwater harvesting, afforestation and conservation of soil and water.
131. The International Booker Prize, started in 2005, is awarded for fiction that is:
Answer: E. It honours fiction translated into English and recognises both the author and the translator.
132. Which ministry is the nodal body for Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh 2025?
Answer: B. The notes name the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) as nodal.
133. According to PLFS for July-September 2025, rural unemployment among persons aged 15+ fell to what level?
Answer: C. It fell from 4.8% to 4.4% in the quarter.
134. Where was the 11th Mitra Shakti exercise between India and Sri Lanka held?
Answer: A. The exercise began at the Foreign Training Node in Belagavi, Karnataka.
135. Which AQI range corresponds to GRAP Stage III?
Answer: C. Stage III covers the Severe category, AQI 401-450.
151. Blue Origin's New Glenn recently carried NASA's ESCAPADE mission into space. What does this mission set out to do?
Answer: C. ESCAPADE studies the way solar wind acts on Mars' magnetosphere, which helps explain loss of atmosphere and supports later Mars research.
152. The WHO Global TB Report 2025 puts India's 2024 TB incidence per 100,000 people at what level?
Answer: B. India's rate came down from 195 to 187 per 100,000 between 2023 and 2024, says the WHO report.
153. Which world region carries the heaviest TB burden in the WHO Global TB Report 2025?
Answer: A. Southeast Asia is still the region with the greatest TB load globally, and India accounts for a large part of it.
154. By roughly how much does UNEP's Global Cooling Watch 2025 expect cooling-related electricity demand to grow by 2050?
Answer: A. UNEP projects the electricity needed for cooling to climb from about 5,000 TWh today to about 18,000 TWh in 2050.
155. What is the main focus of the 'Niryat Disha' component of the Export Promotion Mission (EPM)?
Answer: D. Niryat Disha offers help that is not monetary, for example better quality, branding, capacity building and logistics.
156. Which Manipur tribal body wants the 'Any Kuki Tribes (AKT)' entry dropped from the ST list?
Answer: D. Thadou Inpi and other groups are asking for removal of the vague 'Any Kuki Tribes' label from Manipur's ST list.
157. Which body has the RBI recognised as the Self-Regulatory Organisation for Payment System Operators?
Answer: B. The RBI gave recognition to the Self-Regulatory Organisation for Payment Aggregators, with the goal of better governance in digital payments.
158. What inflation target does India officially follow under the Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework?
Answer: E. Under FIT the goal is 4% inflation, with tolerance of 2 points either way, giving a range from 2% to 6%.
159. As relief for exporters hit by the 50% US tariff, the RBI lengthened the period for bringing in export proceeds to how long?
Answer: E. The window was stretched from nine to fifteen months so exporters can absorb the losses caused by tariffs.
160. Who is SEBI's proposed 'concise summary' of offer documents chiefly meant to help?
Answer: C. A short summary makes IPO and FPO details clearer for small investors, who then need not wade through long documents.
161. Which company built the twin ESCAPADE spacecraft launched on New Glenn?
Answer: B. Rocket Lab built the Blue and Gold spacecraft.
162. Which organisation published the Global Cooling Watch 2025 at COP30?
Answer: B. UNEP released the second Global Cooling Watch at COP30.
163. ARISE, launched at COP30, functions under which body?
Answer: B. ARISE is a resilience initiative under the Climate Investment Funds.
164. EPM, the Export Promotion Mission, is a flagship initiative of which department?
Answer: B. The notes call EPM a flagship initiative of the Department of Commerce.
165. Under the DPDP Act, 2023, what are individuals whose data is processed called?
Answer: A. Individuals are data principals; collectors are data fiduciaries.
181. Under which scheme were the National Gopal Ratna Awards (NGRA) set up?
Answer: D. The awards were created in 2021 within the Rashtriya Gokul Mission, which backs native cattle breeds and dairy excellence.
182. Winners in which National Gopal Ratna Awards category are not given any cash prize?
Answer: A. AIT technicians are honoured only with a memento and a certificate, and no money is attached.
183. Which articles of the Constitution deal with the subordinate judiciary?
Answer: A. Recruitment to and control over the subordinate courts are laid down in Articles 233 to 237, which share power between High Courts and State Governments.
184. What proportion of civil decrees in subordinate courts take between 3 and 7 years to be executed?
Answer: B. Roughly seven in ten civil decrees need three to seven years for execution, owing to procedural delays and weak infrastructure.
185. The air force exercise Garuda-2025 is hosted in which city?
Answer: B. The exercise takes place at Mont-de-Marsan Air Base in France, with Su-30MKI and Rafale jets participating.
186. In what capacity has PayU won RBI approval to operate?
Answer: C. The RBI authorised PayU to work as a Payment Aggregator, which lets it collect payments for merchants and settle them.
187. What is the defining feature of RBI Floating Rate Bonds?
Answer: C. These bonds pay a variable rate that moves with benchmarks such as G-Sec or Treasury Bill yields.
188. What does the term 'Darwinian Adaptation' mean in the context of banking?
Answer: D. It describes constant evolution, where banks take up digital and competitive practices in order to survive.
189. Which state has started a chatbot-based veterinary service for people who keep livestock?
Answer: E. The Animal Husbandry Department in Rajasthan introduced a chatbot that gives instant advice on animal health.
190. What is a key goal of Rajasthan's veterinary chatbot initiative?
Answer: E. Quicker medical consultation through the chatbot is meant to protect livestock and strengthen rural livelihoods.
191. Regular Pap smears and HPV tests are recommended for women in which age range?
Answer: C. Screening is advised for women aged 25 to 65 to catch precancerous changes early.
192. The approved projects are expected to produce output worth how much?
Answer: E. Rs 65,111 crore is the expected production value; Rs 7,172 crore is the investment.
193. In the Raulane ritual, what do the two men who play Raula and Raulane symbolise?
Answer: B. One man acts as Raula (groom) and the other as Raulane (bride) in a symbolic union, serving as vessels for the Saunis.
194. The National Gopal Ratna Awards were instituted in which year under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission?
Answer: C. They were established in 2021; the Mission itself began in 2014.
195. Which Constitutional Articles deal with the subordinate judiciary's appointment and control by High Courts and State Governments?
Answer: B. Articles 233-237 assign these powers jointly.
196. By what percentage does the Global Methane Pledge (GMP), as cited in UNEP's Global Methane Status Report 2025, aim to cut methane emissions by 2030?
Answer: C. Countries in the pledge commit to lowering worldwide methane emissions by 30 percent below 2020 levels by 2030.
197. Which approach does India follow in NAP-AMR 2.0 (2025–29) to tackle antimicrobial resistance?
Answer: B. The plan takes a broad One Health route that brings together human health, animals, agriculture, food safety and the environment.
198. The Sentinel-6B satellite, launched on a SpaceX Falcon-9, is mainly used to measure what?
Answer: A. It carries forward a 30-year altimetry record, precisely tracking sea-surface height, ocean temperature and sea state.
199. The newly released NIC-2025 brings in an industrial classification code of how many digits?
Answer: B. NIC-2025 swaps the five-digit layout of NIC-2008 for a finer six-digit classification.
200. India won re-election to the Executive Committee of the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) as the representative of which region?
Answer: A. India was returned unopposed as Asia's regional representative on the Codex Executive Committee, serving until CAC50 in 2027.
201. Which sector does the Antariksh Venture Capital Fund (AVCF) of SIDBI target?
Answer: C. AVCF is the biggest VC fund in India devoted to space technology, covering launch systems, satellites and downstream space applications.
202. Which category does the "LUMIERE" credit card from RBL Bank fall into?
Answer: E. LUMIERE is an invite-only metal card weighing 18 grams, offering luxury lifestyle and travel benefits.
203. What does SEBI's "In-Principle Approval" for a mutual fund business let a company do?
Answer: D. This preliminary nod allows the applicant to build infrastructure, hire staff and complete compliance ahead of the final mutual fund licence.
204. Farmers commonly raise which worry about the proposed PPV&FRA amendments?
Answer: E. Growers fear private seed firms could use DUS tests to take over community-bred varieties such as Njavara paddy.
205. From which cropping season will the new "wild animal attack" cover under PMFBY apply?
Answer: D. The Ministry made wild animal attack an add-on cover under PMFBY, beginning with the 2026 Kharif season.
206. India is rated low on which CCPI category in 2026?
Answer: D. India is medium on emissions, energy use and policy, but low on renewable energy.
207. Which statement about Saudi Arabia's new US status is correct?
Answer: C. MNNA status offers privileged defence collaboration but does not constitute a defence treaty.
208. The Global Methane Status Report 2025 reviews progress on a pledge to cut methane by what share by 2030?
Answer: B. The Global Methane Pledge targets a 30% cut by 2030.
209. NAP-AMR 2.0, India's plan against antimicrobial resistance, covers which period?
Answer: C. It is a five-year framework for 2025-29.
210. Sentinel-6B was launched on which rocket?
Answer: B. The notes say it flew on a SpaceX Falcon-9.
226. Which constitutional provision did the Supreme Court discuss in connection with "deemed assent" to pending Bills?
Answer: C. Article 142 gives the Court power to do 'complete justice', but the Court held it cannot be invoked to grant deemed assent to Bills pending with a Governor or the President.
227. Which ministry is behind the campaign "Hamara Shauchalaya, Hamara Bhavishya"?
Answer: D. Jal Shakti started it on World Toilet Day 2025 to improve rural sanitation and encourage community involvement.
228. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) was first set up in 1851 to search for which resource?
Answer: A. The British founded GSI in 1851 to find coal deposits needed for the growing Indian railway network.
229. Which country is the host of the Second Regional Open Digital Health Summit (RODHS) 2025?
Answer: C. RODHS 2025 is taking place in New Delhi, with member nations of WHO-SEARO taking part.
230. 'Sagar Kavach' is chiefly an exercise concerned with what?
Answer: D. Held twice a year by the Indian Coast Guard, it checks readiness against intrusion, smuggling and terrorist infiltration from the sea.
231. Banks have asked the RBI to lift the acquisition financing limit, now 10% of Tier-1 capital, to what level?
Answer: E. They say the existing 10 percent ceiling falls short given growing M&A activity and want it moved to between 25 and 40 percent of Tier-1 capital.
232. SEBI issued a caution in 2025 about which financial product that is not regulated?
Answer: B. SEBI made clear digital gold is not a regulated security and warned investors about risks to purity, storage and counterparty reliability.
233. Under which SEBI regulation are Online Bond Platform Providers (OBPPs) in India governed?
Answer: A. The governing framework is the SEBI (Online Bond Platform Providers) Regulations, 2022, which aims to protect investors and keep things transparent.
234. According to FAO SOFIA 2024, India ranks as the world's ____ largest producer from aquaculture.
Answer: B. Behind only China, India is the second biggest aquaculture producer, contributing 23 million tonnes of aquatic animals.
235. Which flagship scheme has an outlay of ₹20,312 crore for fisheries development over 2020–26?
Answer: E. PMMSY, worth ₹20,312 crore, targets cold chains, transport, aquaculture parks and lower post-harvest losses.
236. Amit Agrawal, the new DoT Secretary, belongs to which IAS batch and cadre?
Answer: B. He is a 1993-batch IAS officer of the Chhattisgarh cadre.
237. What is the main purpose of the DRDO-DGA agreement?
Answer: B. It provides a structured framework for joint research, training, testing and technical exchange.
238. Which country hosted the 74th Miss Universe pageant in November 2025?
Answer: E. The pageant was held at Impact Challenger Hall in Nonthaburi, Thailand.
239. Which Article was held unusable for granting 'deemed assent' to Bills pending with governors or the President?
Answer: B. The five-judge bench ruled Article 142 cannot be used for deemed assent.
240. Which ministry launched the Hamara Shauchalaya, Hamara Bhavishya campaign?
Answer: C. The campaign was launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
241. Which of the following is not among the four Labour Codes notified by the Centre?
Answer: D. The notified codes cover wages, industrial relations, social security and occupational safety, health and working conditions. No code exists under the name Labour Welfare & Employment.
242. ICDS has completed 50 years. Which age group is its main target?
Answer: A. The scheme serves children up to six years as well as expectant and nursing mothers, with nutrition and early childhood development as its core.
243. Which of these is not a basic service delivered through ICDS?
Answer: B. ICDS provides six services, namely nutrition, pre-school education, immunisation, health check-ups, referrals and health education. Loans for skilling are not among them.
244. What is the main reason for linking India's UPI with the Eurozone's TIPS system?
Answer: E. The UPI-TIPS connection is intended to allow fast, real-time payments between India and the Eurozone.
245. Who operates the TARGET Instant Payment Settlement (TIPS) system?
Answer: C. The Eurosystem runs TIPS, led by the European Central Bank along with the national central banks of the euro area.
246. What explains the recent rise of India's Credit-Deposit (CD) ratio above 80%?
Answer: A. Strong demand for loans combined with slower deposit mobilisation took the ratio over 80%, the top of the RBI's comfort zone.
247. Within what range does the RBI normally regard the CD ratio as comfortable?
Answer: D. A ratio between 60% and 75% is usually viewed by the RBI as healthy, striking a balance between liquidity and credit supply.
248. To what level does the Insurance Laws (Amendment) Bill 2025 propose to lift FDI in insurance from the present 74%?
Answer: C. The bill would take the FDI cap in the sector to 100% so as to attract investment and spur growth.
249. What was e-NAM created to link together?
Answer: E. e-NAM unites APMC mandis across the country into one online marketplace for farm produce.
250. Following its expansion, how many commodities in total can now be traded on e-NAM?
Answer: B. Nine additions, including green tea and mentha oil, bring the number of standardised tradable commodities on e-NAM to 247.
251. Warm days in India are increasing by how many days per decade in many regions?
Answer: C. The study reports 5 to 10 additional warm days per decade.
252. Azim Premji, honoured by ISB in November 2025, is the Founder Chairman of which company?
Answer: B. Premji is the Founder Chairman of Wipro.
253. Under which Australian law do the under-16 social media restrictions operate?
Answer: C. The restrictions are part of reforms under the Online Safety Act.
254. Which body established World Television Day?
Answer: D. The United Nations created the observance in 1996.
255. Mahavatar Narsimha is India's entry in which Oscars 2026 category?
Answer: C. Mahavatar Narsimha competes in animation, while Homebound is in international feature.
271. Which of these is a brand-new test category brought in by Bharat NCAP 2.0?
Answer: C. Version 2.0 adds Vulnerable Road User Protection and Post-Crash Safety. Frontal, side and oblique pole tests were there earlier.
272. A 50:50 joint venture to make HAMMER weapons in India has been agreed between France and India through which two entities?
Answer: C. A 50:50 Joint Venture Cooperation Agreement links Bharat Electronics Ltd with Safran Electronics & Defence of France to build HAMMER munitions locally.
273. Which digital platform does the NITI Aayog Water Budgeting report use for planning and data integration?
Answer: E. Varuni is a web platform used for water budgeting, supply-demand analysis, hotspot mapping and planning at block level.
274. How does the RBI Bulletin of November 2025 describe India's present inflation?
Answer: D. The RBI says inflation has eased to a record low and sits well under the target, which supports growth.
275. Crisil expects NBFC assets under management to go beyond what figure by March 2027?
Answer: B. Crisil's estimate is that NBFC AUM will exceed Rs 50 trillion by FY27, helped by robust demand driven by consumption.
276. Which security does SEBI propose to leave out of BSDA portfolio valuation altogether?
Answer: D. Delisted securities would be dropped entirely from the valuation since they have neither a market price nor any value that can be realised.
277. What new cap on brokerage for cash market trades has SEBI put forward?
Answer: A. The proposal lowers the cash market brokerage ceiling from 12 bps to 2 bps, easing costs passed on to investors.
278. How frequently would BSDA eligibility be reviewed under SEBI's proposal?
Answer: A. SEBI favours an automatic and uniform quarterly review in place of checks tied to each depository participant's billing cycle.
279. What share of India's freshwater use goes to agriculture, as stated in the Water Budgeting report?
Answer: B. Farming draws most of the country's freshwater, so measures like micro-irrigation and crop diversification are essential.
280. According to the report, which block has the largest water deficit?
Answer: E. Namchi has a 94% water shortfall, the worst among the aspirational blocks that were studied.
281. What was the final score when India won the Women's Kabaddi World Cup 2025?
Answer: C. India won 35-28 against Chinese Taipei.
282. Which ministry released the draft Bharat NCAP 2.0?
Answer: B. MoRTH released the draft.
283. India and France agreed to jointly produce which air-to-ground weapon?
Answer: A. The agreement covers HAMMER precision-guided munitions.
284. What is the name of the web-based water budgeting platform used in NITI Aayog's aspirational blocks report?
Answer: B. Varuni supports block-level water budgeting and gap analysis.
285. Who succeeded CJI B. R. Gavai as the 53rd Chief Justice of India?
Answer: C. Justice Surya Kant took office on 24 November 2025.
301. Under the new MoEFCC definition, the Aravalli Hills include only those landforms that rise how high?
Answer: B. The ministry told the Supreme Court that Aravalli hills are landforms standing at least 100 m above the surrounding ground, which removes protection from over 90% of the hills identified earlier.
302. As per the Forest Survey of India, how many Aravalli hills stay protected under the new definition?
Answer: E. Only 1,048 of the 12,081 hills of 20 m or more clear the 100 m bar, which is about 8.7% of them.
303. A crater on Mars estimated at 3.5 billion years old has been named after which Indian geologist?
Answer: D. The IAU cleared a Martian crater to be named after M.S. Krishnan, who was the first Indian to head the Geological Survey of India.
304. Which sanctuaries have been suggested for Phase-1 of the Goa Tiger Reserve, following recent Supreme Court recommendations?
Answer: D. The CEC suggested Netravali with Cotigao as the core zone of 296.7 sq. km for the first phase of the reserve.
305. What did the RBI Deputy Governor say about the central bank's inflation forecasts?
Answer: B. Poonam Gupta said the forecasts are not systematically skewed and are produced using several models for accuracy.
306. At what level did India's CPI inflation stand in October 2025?
Answer: A. CPI inflation dropped to 0.25%, the lowest pace ever seen, which sparked debate on the policy stance.
307. What total outlay did the Cabinet approve for the new REPM manufacturing scheme?
Answer: C. The Union Cabinet cleared Rs 7,280 crore to encourage domestic making of rare earth permanent magnets.
308. Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (REPMs) are vital to which sector?
Answer: E. REPMs go into EV motors and renewable energy systems, and also into aerospace and defence equipment.
309. What do the CAFE-III norms chiefly regulate in vehicles?
Answer: C. CAFE rules set fleet-wide limits on CO2 emissions and fuel use, which pushes towards cleaner vehicles and more EVs.
310. Which CAFE-III exemption is tied to easing urban congestion and pollution?
Answer: A. Exempting compact, space-saving cars helps limit congestion and pollution compared with large SUVs.
311. The top three finishers of the FIDE World Cup 2025 qualify for which event?
Answer: C. The first, second and third place finishers qualify for the Candidates Tournament 2026.
312. Constitution Day in India commemorates which event?
Answer: C. 26 November marks the adoption of the Constitution in 1949.
313. Whom did Rohit Sharma replace at No.1 in ICC ODI batting?
Answer: B. New Zealand's Daryl Mitchell held the ODI No.1 position before Rohit's return.
314. What minimum height above local relief defines Aravalli Hills under the definition accepted by the Supreme Court in November 2025?
Answer: C. The new definition focuses on hills of 100 m or more.
315. After which Indian geologist did the IAU name a Martian crater?
Answer: C. The crater is called Krishnan Crater after M.S. Krishnan.