1. The IONS IMEX TTX 2026 run by the Indian Navy was mainly meant to do what?
A. Fire live missiles at sea B. Train Indian Navy staff alone C. Carry out live naval combat drills D. Rehearse maritime situations through a discussion-based format E. Check the capabilities of nuclear submarines Answer: D. A table-top exercise works through simulated scenarios by discussion, so partners can practise coordination and decisions without sending out real ships or aircraft.
2. In what year did the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium come into being?
A. 2012 B. 2005 C. 2010 D. 2008 E. 2015 Answer: D. India initiated IONS in 2008 as a forum to deepen naval and maritime cooperation among Indian Ocean littoral nations.
3. Humpback whales cannot thrive in the Baltic Sea because of which condition?
A. Many natural predators B. Weak salinity together with no krill to feed on C. Very strong tides D. Warm, polluted water E. Too little dissolved oxygen Answer: B. These whales need salty ocean water and rely on krill for food; the Baltic has neither the right salt levels nor that prey, so living there is hard.
4. Exercise Dweep Shakti is linked to the Andaman and Nicobar Command because that command is:
A. The nuclear command centre of India B. Based on the Indian mainland C. A facility used just to train foreign soldiers D. Home to naval units alone E. The country's sole unified tri-service theatre command Answer: E. The command brings the Army, Navy and Air Force under a single head, which suits joint drills such as Dweep Shakti centred on defending islands.
5. Which aim best describes NASA's Artemis II mission?
A. Putting astronauts straight onto the lunar surface B. Setting up a permanent colony on Mars C. Checking systems for lasting human presence beyond Earth orbit D. Placing satellites in low-Earth orbit E. Exploring the Moon with robots Answer: C. Artemis II carries a crew to test deep-space equipment and prepares the ground for long-term lunar exploration, rather than attempting a landing right away.
6. Under the latest RBI relief steps, export credit can run for up to how long?
A. 450 days B. 300 days C. 365 days D. 270 days E. 540 days Answer: A. To ease cash strain caused by disruptions in global trade, the central bank lengthened the permissible export credit period to 450 days.
7. The RBI relief package lengthens the window for bringing back export earnings to:
A. 12 months B. 24 months C. 18 months D. 9 months E. 15 months Answer: E. Exporters hit by delays from geopolitical trouble now get 15 months, up from the earlier nine, to repatriate their proceeds.
8. RBI's revised norms limit bank lending against shares across the whole system to how much per borrower?
A. ₹5 crore B. ₹1 crore C. ₹10 lakh D. ₹25 lakh E. ₹50 lakh Answer: B. A system-wide ceiling of ₹1 crore per borrower stops people from piling up leverage by borrowing from many banks at once.
9. Which of these is not one of the pillars on which the Supervisory Data Quality Index rests?
A. Completeness B. Timeliness C. Profitability D. Consistency E. Accuracy Answer: C. The index scores data on accuracy, timeliness, completeness and consistency; how profitable a bank is does not form part of it.
10. Under the revised RBI rules, AD Category-I banks must file ECB returns within what period?
A. 7 days B. 15 days C. 10 days D. 3 days E. 5 days Answer: A. A seven-calendar-day deadline was set so that ECB reporting becomes quicker and compliance is easier to monitor.
11. When did the President give assent to the Income-tax Bill that became the 2025 Act?
A. 12 August 2025 B. 20 March 2026 C. 21 August 2025 D. 1 April 2026 E. 1 April 2025 Answer: C. Parliament passed it on 12 August 2025 and assent came on 21 August 2025.
12. What kind of exercise was the IONS Maritime Exercise (IMEX) 2026 held in Kochi?
A. Live-fire naval combat drill B. Table-top, war-gaming style simulation C. Joint coast guard patrol D. Air-defence field trial Answer: B. IMEX 2026 was a table-top exercise using war-gaming, with no ship deployment.
13. What is the IUCN Red List category of the humpback whale, as noted in this item?
A. Least Concern B. Vulnerable C. Endangered D. Critically Endangered Answer: A. The notes record the humpback whale as Least Concern.
14. Which Indian command hosted the tri-service Exercise Dweep Shakti on island defence?
A. Southern Command B. Andaman and Nicobar Command C. Strategic Forces Command D. Eastern Naval Command Answer: B. Dweep Shakti ran under the Andaman and Nicobar Command, India's only Theater Command.
15. In NASA's Artemis II mission, what is the main safety advantage of a free-return trajectory?
A. It lets the crew land on the Moon quickly B. Lunar gravity loops the craft back to Earth without a major engine burn C. It avoids radiation completely D. It doubles the rocket's fuel Answer: B. A free-return path uses the Moon's gravity to bring Orion home without a big burn.
16. Statutory backing given to Amaravati through the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026 means what in practice?
A. Amaravati is turned into a Union Territory B. Andhra Pradesh is granted Special Category Status C. The capital decision rests on a parliamentary law and is hard to undo D. Hyderabad is merged back into Andhra Pradesh E. The Supreme Court takes over the capital decision Answer: C. When a decision is written into an Act of Parliament, it carries legal force. That makes it much harder to alter by an ordinary executive order.
17. Under the earlier Three-Capital proposal for Andhra Pradesh, the Administrative Capital role was assigned to which city?
A. Visakhapatnam B. Amaravati C. Kurnool D. Vijayawada E. Tirupati Answer: A. In that scheme Visakhapatnam would house the administration, with Amaravati serving as the legislative seat and Kurnool as the judicial seat.
18. Which area of biodiversity governance is the Nagoya Protocol chiefly concerned with?
A. Mitigating climate change B. Wildlife protection laws C. Controlling ocean pollution D. Managing forest fires E. Equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources Answer: E. The protocol aims at fair and equitable distribution of gains from using genetic resources, which helps stop biopiracy.
19. The Nyaya Setu AI Chatbot has been built chiefly to do what?
A. Substitute judges with AI B. Give people simple, multilingual access to legal information C. Raise the revenue from court fees D. Keep watch on criminal activity E. Digitise only police records Answer: B. The tool is meant to widen access to justice by overcoming language and literacy barriers through AI and voice-first design.
20. What is the thrust of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026?
A. Raising criminal penalties B. Widening the scope of GST C. Nationalising MSMEs D. Decriminalising minor offences and easing compliance burdens E. Abolishing civil courts Answer: D. Minor violations would attract fines instead of jail terms, which supports ease of doing business.
21. For whom are the natural gas derivatives introduced by NSE and IGX mainly useful?
A. Export promotion B. Boosting tax collections C. Cutting down imports D. Those wanting to hedge against swings in gas prices E. Stabilising the currency Answer: D. Industrial users can fix the price they will pay in advance, shielding themselves from fluctuating natural gas rates.
22. Which index serves as the benchmark for the new natural gas derivative contracts?
A. Brent Index B. GIXI C. Henry Hub D. Nifty Energy E. MCX Gas Index Answer: B. GIXI is a price index created by the Indian Gas Exchange to reflect domestic gas prices.
23. RBI's PaSS framework is meant to bring in which facility?
A. Portability of bank accounts B. A unified lending platform C. A digital currency D. Regulation of cryptocurrency E. A loan waiver scheme Answer: A. Under PaSS a customer could move to another bank and keep the same account number, much like keeping a mobile number when changing operators.
24. What was the reasoning behind RBI prohibiting Non-Deliverable Forward (NDF) contracts in the rupee?
A. To raise exports B. To attract foreign investment C. To steady the stock markets D. To lift remittance inflows E. To curb currency speculation that involves no genuine transaction Answer: E. Non-deliverable forwards permit bets on the rupee without any real exchange of currency, and such speculation can unsettle the rupee in a crisis.
25. Regulatory Impact Assessment (RIA) is chiefly used for what?
A. Multiplying the number of laws B. Lowering tax rates C. Assessing the economic and social effects of regulations D. Taking the place of Parliament E. Encouraging exports Answer: C. RIA weighs costs, benefits and consequences of a rule both before and after it takes effect, so that it works as intended.
26. Which city was proposed as the judicial capital under the earlier three-capital model for Andhra Pradesh?
A. Visakhapatnam B. Amaravati C. Vijayawada D. Kurnool Answer: D. The model placed the judicial capital at Kurnool.
27. What does the theme Maati of the Purvanchal Mahotsav Maati-9 festival symbolise?
A. Soil-testing technology B. Bond between people and their ancestral roots C. A free land distribution scheme D. Pottery exports Answer: B. Maati means soil and stands for the bond with ancestral roots.
28. India's 3,561 IRCCs form what share of all certificates issued worldwide under the Nagoya Protocol?
A. About 10% B. About 25% C. Over 56% D. All of them Answer: C. The notes state India's certificates are over 56% of the global total.
29. Shachi (Yard 1280), launched by the Indian Navy, is the first ship of which project?
A. Project 75 submarines B. Fleet support ships C. Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels D. Landing platform docks Answer: C. It is the lead vessel among eleven NGOPVs.
30. How many voice languages does the Nyaya Setu AI chatbot support?
A. 10 B. 16 C. 23 D. 36 Answer: C. It supports 36 text languages and 23 voice languages.
31. What makes Lagrange Point 1 a good location for a mission such as Aditya-L1?
A. It lies nearest to Mars B. It serves as a launch site for satellites C. Gravity there is nil D. It sits within the solar atmosphere E. Sun can be watched nonstop with nothing blocking the view Answer: E. L1 is a stable spot between Earth and the Sun, so a spacecraft there avoids eclipses by Earth or the Moon and keeps the Sun constantly in view.
32. Survey Vessel 'Sanshodhak' is mainly employed for which job?
A. Drilling for oil B. Launching missiles C. Hydrographic and oceanographic surveying D. Fighting in combat E. Space research Answer: C. The ship maps the seabed and collects ocean data, which supports safe navigation and the growth of maritime activity.
33. The IOS SAGAR initiative chiefly seeks to:
A. Integrate banking systems B. Explore outer space C. Promote tourism D. Strengthen maritime security cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region E. Boost farm exports Answer: D. IOS SAGAR works on regional maritime cooperation, including countering piracy and keeping the Indian Ocean secure.
34. IRDAI's crackdown on dark patterns is intended to:
A. Encourage offline-only insurance B. Lift insurers' profits C. Shield consumers from deceptive online practices D. Cut down the number of policies sold E. Raise premium rates Answer: C. The regulator wants to remove misleading interface designs that nudge people into buying insurance they did not intend to purchase.
35. A wholly owned subsidiary route for a foreign bank in India is characterised by it being:
A. Free of RBI oversight B. A locally incorporated entity regulated within India C. Exempt from capital needs D. Active only abroad E. Restricted to digital operations Answer: B. The foreign bank operates as an Indian company with local capital and governance, which makes it easier for the RBI to supervise.
36. What led SEBI to revisit the open market route for buybacks?
A. The tax arbitrage gap between routes has been removed B. Pressure from politicians C. A crash in share markets D. Elevated inflation E. A shortage of investors Answer: A. Following tax changes, buyback receipts are taxed as capital gains, so the earlier unfairness is gone and open market buybacks are on an even footing.
37. A share buyback affects the company's stock in which way?
A. It turns shares into bonds B. It lowers the share price C. It halts trading D. It enlarges the total share count E. It cuts the number of shares outstanding Answer: E. Repurchasing shares shrinks how many remain in circulation, which usually pushes earnings per share higher.
38. The 'Tea Mark' scheme is chiefly designed to:
A. Curb tea output B. Boost exports exclusively C. Displace the coffee industry D. Make tea traceable and assure its quality E. Develop tea tourism Answer: D. The mark certifies that tea meets set quality norms and brings openness to the supply chain.
39. Digital traceability in agriculture is best understood as:
A. Marketing through social media B. Following a product's journey with digital tools C. Keeping paper records by hand D. Farming guided by satellites E. Predicting the weather Answer: B. It lets a farm product be traced from where it was grown to the final buyer, which improves transparency and quality checks.
40. A leading cause behind the collapse of agri-tech startups in Southeast Asia was:
A. Expanding too early into several markets B. Too much funding C. Bans imposed by governments D. Heavy rainfall E. Not enough farmers Answer: A. Many of them grew too fast into varied markets before building solid local execution, and that undermined them.
41. Why is L1 a good position for Aditya-L1 according to these notes?
A. It lets the craft land on the Sun B. It gives continuous Sun viewing without eclipses C. It removes the solar wind D. It is the closest point to the Sun Answer: B. At L1 Earth or Moon never block the view, enabling 24/7 monitoring.
42. Which shipyard delivered the Survey Vessel (Large) Sanshodhak to the Indian Navy?
A. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders B. Cochin Shipyard C. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers D. Hindustan Shipyard Answer: C. GRSE, Kolkata delivered Sanshodhak (Yard 3028) on 30 March 2026.
43. What does SAGAR stand for in India's maritime policy?
A. Strategic Alliance for Global Agricultural Reform B. Security and Growth for All in the Region C. South Asian Geographic and Atmospheric Research D. Satellite-based GPS and Radio Navigation Answer: B. SAGAR is India's Indian Ocean vision of security and growth for all in the region.
44. Within how many days did IRDAI ask insurers to file their first compliance report on dark patterns on digital platforms?
A. 7 days B. 30 days C. 15 days D. 90 days Answer: C. A report within 15 days, then an action plan within one month if needed.
45. Which bank's stake of up to 74% did Emirates NBD get RBI approval to acquire?
A. IDFC First Bank B. RBL Bank C. Yes Bank D. Bandhan Bank Answer: B. The approval covered up to 74% of RBL Bank for $3 billion.
46. Which naval project does INS Taragiri belong to?
A. Project 17A B. Project Arihant C. Project Varsha D. Project 75 E. Project 15B Answer: A. Taragiri is a stealth frigate of the Nilgiri class built under Project 17A, which produces advanced guided-missile frigates for the Navy.
47. INS Taragiri is driven by which type of propulsion arrangement?
A. Solar-electric propulsion B. Steam turbine propulsion C. Diesel-electric propulsion D. Nuclear propulsion E. Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) Answer: E. With CODOG, diesel engines give efficient cruising at low speed while gas turbines are engaged for fast combat manoeuvres.
48. An SSBN such as INS Aridhaman is chiefly meant for which role?
A. Amphibious warfare B. Strategic nuclear deterrence C. Cargo transport D. Anti-piracy duties E. Coastal surveillance Answer: B. Such submarines carry nuclear ballistic missiles and guarantee a second-strike capability, forming a key leg of the nuclear triad.
49. The 'Kar Saathi' platform is mainly designed to do what?
A. Issue PAN cards B. Collect GST by hand C. Track banking frauds D. Offer AI-driven assistance on taxes E. Manage stock market investments Answer: D. It is an AI-enabled platform that helps taxpayers with filing, compliance and queries linked to the Income Tax Act, 2025.
50. SAMPANN is concerned mainly with which area?
A. Tax refunds B. Insurance claims C. Agricultural subsidies D. Pension management E. Banking transactions Answer: D. The System for Accounting and Management of Pension is a cloud-based system covering pension processing and payment from start to finish.
51. What does RBI's Benchmark Issuance Strategy (BIS) chiefly aim to achieve?
A. Replacing G-Secs B. Lessening fragmentation in the market for SDLs C. Attracting only foreign investment D. Ending state borrowing E. Pushing inflation up Answer: B. By standardising how bonds are issued, the strategy is expected to improve liquidity and price discovery in State Development Loans.
52. In bond markets, the term 'yield' stands for what?
A. The return earned by an investor B. The credit rating C. A government subsidy D. The market price of the bond E. Tax levied on bonds Answer: A. Yield is the effective return that an investor gets from holding a bond.
53. As per the study, what share of microfinance loans goes towards business use?
A. 90% B. 50% C. 40% D. 25% E. 75% Answer: E. The study found three-quarters of microfinance borrowing is put into productive uses such as business and earning a livelihood.
54. RBI fixes the highest permissible FOIR at what level?
A. 75% B. 60% C. 50% D. 40% E. 25% Answer: C. The regulator permits FOIR up to 50 percent, whereas the study found a healthier 18.7 percent, pointing to little borrower stress.
55. Which of these has been designated a Domestic Systemically Important Insurer (D-SII)?
A. Bajaj Allianz B. ICICI Lombard C. LIC D. SBI Life E. HDFC Life Answer: C. LIC, together with GIC Re and NIACL, is on the D-SII list because of its importance to the Indian financial system.
56. Which shipyard built INS Taragiri?
A. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers B. Cochin Shipyard Limited C. Hindustan Shipyard Limited D. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited Answer: D. Taragiri was built by MDL in Mumbai.
57. INS Aridhaman is the third vessel of which class of Indian submarines?
A. Kalvari class B. Arihant class C. Sindhughosh class D. Shishumar class Answer: B. It follows INS Arihant and INS Arighaat in the Arihant class.
58. Kar Saathi was introduced to support the transition to which law?
A. Income Tax Act, 1961 B. Companies Act, 2013 C. Finance Act, 2020 D. Income Tax Act, 2025 Answer: D. The platform is built around the Income Tax Act, 2025.
59. What is the full form of the pension platform SAMPANN?
A. System for Accounting and Management of Pension B. State Authority for Monitoring Pension and National Networks C. System for Analysis and Management of National Networks D. Strategic Assets and Management of Pensioners' Network Answer: A. SAMPANN stands for System for Accounting and Management of Pension.
60. YUVIKA, the ISRO programme for school students, expands to what?
A. Yuva Vikas Kendra B. Youth Victory Karnataka C. Yuva Vigyani Karyakram D. Yuva Vishwa Karyalaya Answer: C. YUVIKA stands for Yuva Vigyani Karyakram, the Young Scientist Programme.
61. The collision of which two tectonic plates gave rise to the Hindu Kush range?
A. Arabian and African Plates B. Pacific and North American Plates C. Nazca and Antarctic Plates D. Indian and Eurasian Plates E. African and Eurasian Plates Answer: D. Like the Himalayas, the Hindu Kush was created when the Indian Plate crashed into the Eurasian Plate, which keeps the area tectonically very active.
62. Deep earthquakes under the Hindu Kush happen chiefly because:
A. Volcanoes erupt B. Ocean trenches form C. Tectonic plate material descends into the mantle D. Glaciers shift E. Air pressure varies Answer: C. A slab of crust sinking into the mantle produces seismic activity at intermediate depths in this region.
63. Fossil freshwater fish found in the Shivalik foothills were identified mainly through which part?
A. Skull pieces B. Otoliths C. Fins D. Vertebrae E. Scales Answer: B. Otoliths are tough ear bones in fish that survive burial, so they reveal both the species and the surrounding environment.
64. Which fish found among the Shivalik fossils is a first record for India?
A. Goby B. Gourami C. Catfish D. Snakehead E. Tuna Answer: B. Gourami fossils are very uncommon; this find is India's first and only the second anywhere in the world.
65. ISRO's Mission MITRA is mainly intended to:
A. Evaluate how humans respond in extreme environments B. Examine what asteroids are made of C. Build missiles D. Put satellites into orbit E. Track climate change Answer: A. The mission looks at bodily and mental reactions under harsh conditions such as low oxygen, supporting future spaceflight.
66. To which submarine class does INS Aridhaman (S4) belong?
A. Shishumar Class B. Chakra Class C. Kalvari Class D. Arihant Class E. Sindhughosh Class Answer: D. Aridhaman is a nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine of the Arihant class, built under the ATV programme.
67. RBI and IRDAI observations trace financial mis-selling by banks mostly to:
A. Poor financial literacy B. Growth of digital banking C. Low interest rates D. Government subsidies E. Large commissions paid upfront Answer: E. Big commissions push staff to sell products aggressively, with little thought about whether they suit the customer.
68. Which authority governs the Expense of Management limits for insurers?
A. PFRDA B. SEBI C. IRDAI D. NABARD E. RBI Answer: C. The insurance regulator oversees insurers and caps their running costs, commissions included, through EOM limits.
69. As per PLFS 2025, which group makes up the largest part of India's workforce?
A. Government employees B. Private salaried staff C. Casual labourers D. The unemployed E. Self-employed people Answer: E. Over 56% of workers are self-employed, a pattern that often points to low productivity and hidden unemployment.
70. Moody's cut its FY27 India growth projection to 6% mainly because of:
A. The West Asia conflict disrupting supply chains B. Falling exports C. Increasing joblessness D. A banking crisis E. A poor monsoon Answer: A. Tension in the region hampers energy and fertiliser imports, which is likely to lift inflation and hold back growth.
71. Under the new Telangana order, within what period must a cancer case be reported?
A. One week B. Fifteen days C. One month D. Three months E. Six months Answer: C. The order mandates a one-month reporting timeline for cancer cases.
72. The Hindu Kush range was mainly formed by collision between which plates?
A. African and Eurasian B. Indian and Eurasian C. Nazca and South American D. Pacific and Australian Answer: B. It results from the Indian and Eurasian plate collision.
73. Which fish body part was found as fossil material in the Shivalik foothills?
A. Scales B. Otoliths C. Fins D. Tail bones Answer: B. Otoliths, calcium carbonate ear bones, were recovered.
74. What does MITRA stand for in ISRO's Mission MITRA in Ladakh?
A. Monitoring of International Trade and Resource Allocation B. Mapping of Interoperable Traits and Response Assessment C. Mission for Integrated Technology and Rocket Assembly D. Mobile Integrated Telecommunication and Radar Array Answer: B. The notes give the expansion as Mapping of Interoperable Traits and Response Assessment.
75. Where is the newly opened BIRAC-BioNEST centre located?
A. CSIR-CFTRI, Mysuru B. New Delhi C. Hyderabad D. Pune Answer: A. The centre is hosted on the CSIR-CFTRI campus in Mysuru, Karnataka.
76. The Border Roads Organisation's Project Chetak mainly operates in which kind of terrain?
A. High-altitude Himalayan areas B. Coastal areas C. Island territories D. Forests of Central India E. Desert and plains of western India Answer: E. Its work covers Rajasthan, Punjab and northern Gujarat, where it backs military logistics across desert and plain country.
77. Along India's borders, what is the chief use of a Ditch Cum Bund (DCB)?
A. Water conservation B. Stopping tanks and also helping control floods C. Building roads D. Setting up a communication network E. Border fencing Answer: B. A DCB combines a trench with an embankment, which blocks enemy tanks and also helps hold back floodwater in the plains.
78. Which factor is mainly responsible for stagflation in an economy?
A. Excess demand B. Strong exports C. A fiscal surplus D. A supply shock E. Higher savings Answer: D. A negative supply shock, for instance a jump in oil prices, cuts output while pushing up inflation, producing stagflation.
79. Tar balls washing up on India's western coast consist mostly of what?
A. Plastic polymers B. Coal residue C. Marine algae D. Weathered crude oil E. Sand sediments Answer: D. They are lumps of crude oil that have hardened after processes such as evaporation and emulsification.
80. What makes the Indian Crested Porcupine a problem for saffron growers?
A. It feeds on the saffron flowers B. It digs up and destroys the underground corms C. It damages irrigation systems D. It spreads fungal infection E. It lowers soil fertility Answer: B. The animal digs out and eats the corms, so the plants cannot regrow and fields suffer lasting harm.
81. According to RBI's new framework, which of these counts officially as a 'Banking Outlet'?
A. BC-Banking Outlet (BC-BO) B. An ATM C. BC-Banking Touchpoint (BC-BT) D. A mobile banking app E. A payment wallet Answer: A. BC-BOs are recognised as formal banking outlets and help take banking services to rural areas.
82. What limit applies to ECB borrowing under RBI's revised framework?
A. US$500 million, fixed B. US$750 million, fixed C. No cap on borrowing D. A limit set only by RBI approval E. US$1 billion or 300% of net worth Answer: E. Fixed ceilings have been swapped for flexible ones that depend on how financially strong the company is.
83. What is the chief function of an Independent Director on a company board?
A. Running day-to-day operations B. Marketing the company's products C. Safeguarding the interests of minority shareholders D. Handling HR matters E. Managing relations with the government Answer: C. Such directors act as watchdogs, ensuring transparency and protecting shareholders against misuse by management.
84. DICGC insures a depositor's money up to what maximum?
A. ₹1 lakh B. ₹2 lakh C. ₹5 lakh D. ₹3 lakh E. ₹10 lakh Answer: C. Cover extends to ₹5 lakh for each depositor, counting both the principal and the interest.
85. Hedging in External Commercial Borrowings mainly protects a borrower from which risk?
A. Exchange rate risk B. Credit risk C. Liquidity risk D. Operational risk E. Legal risk Answer: A. It shields firms from losses caused by currency movements, particularly when the rupee weakens.
86. Project Chetak of the BRO mainly operates in which region?
A. Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh B. Rajasthan, Punjab and northern Gujarat C. Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim D. Andaman and Nicobar Answer: B. Chetak covers India's western desert and plains: Rajasthan, Punjab, northern Gujarat.
87. Which economist-politician is credited in these notes with coining the term stagflation?
A. Iain Macleod B. John Keynes C. Milton Friedman D. Adam Smith Answer: A. Notes name British politician Iain Macleod.
88. Which ministry released the Draft Tar Balls Management Rules, 2026?
A. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas B. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change D. Ministry of Earth Sciences Answer: C. MoEFCC issued the draft rules to regulate tar ball detection, cleaning and disposal.
89. Which soil type of the Kashmir Valley suits saffron cultivation in Pampore?
A. Black cotton soil B. Alluvial soil C. Karewa soil D. Laterite soil Answer: C. Karewa soil, formed from lake deposits, offers the drainage saffron corms need.
90. Under RBI's draft Business Correspondent framework, which category is treated as a 'Banking Outlet'?
A. BC-Banking Touchpoint B. ATMs C. BC-Banking Outlet D. Cash deposit machines Answer: C. BC-BOs are fixed points formally counted as outlets; touchpoints, ATMs and kiosks are not.
91. Which sector does the NSO's ASISSE survey mainly cover?
A. Manufacturing B. Mining C. Agriculture D. Formal incorporated services E. The informal sector Answer: D. ASISSE gathers yearly figures on incorporated service firms such as IT companies, hospitals and hotels, helping refine GDP estimates and gauge formalisation.
92. NSO draws up its list of enterprises for ASISSE mainly from which database?
A. Census 2011 B. Aadhaar C. GSTN D. EPFO records E. Voter ID records Answer: C. The GST network keeps an up-to-date record of tax-paying businesses, which makes it a sound basis for sampling formal firms.
93. Roughly how much does India pay each year to overseas shipping lines in freight?
A. $50 billion B. $25 billion C. $100 billion D. $10 billion E. $75 billion Answer: E. Because foreign ships carry most of India's import and export cargo, a large amount of foreign exchange goes out as freight.
94. What new name has been proposed for the Directorate General of Shipping?
A. Maritime Safety Authority B. National Port Authority C. Shipping Regulation Board D. Directorate General of Maritime Administration E. Indian Maritime Council Answer: D. The change signals a move to a broader regulator with greater powers over maritime matters.
95. The IRDAI sub-committee on health insurance is mainly tasked with:
A. Improving product design and the claims experience B. Cutting the number of hospitals C. Raising taxes on insurance D. Banning digital insurance E. Merging private insurers Answer: A. The panel works to better the customer experience, lower claim rejections and strengthen grievance handling.
96. Which platform goes by the nickname 'UPI of Insurance'?
A. Policy Bazaar B. Insurance Pay C. Bima Sugam D. NHCX E. Bharat Cover Answer: C. Bima Sugam is a digital marketplace meant to offer zero-commission policies and make insurance easier to reach.
97. Listed companies in India must maintain minimum public shareholding of:
A. 10% B. 25% C. 20% D. 15% E. 30% Answer: B. SEBI requires at least a quarter of shares to be in public hands, which supports liquidity and curbs promoter manipulation.
98. In banking, the term 'Net Open Position' denotes:
A. The cash reserve ratio B. Net profit margin C. All loans a bank has given D. All deposits held by a bank E. Foreign currency exposure left unhedged Answer: E. It is the foreign currency amount a bank carries without hedging cover, leaving it exposed to exchange rate movements.
99. A SEBI Observation Letter for an IPO is normally valid for:
A. 12 months B. 6 months C. 24 months D. An unlimited period E. 3 months Answer: A. Issuers need to bring the IPO to market within a year of SEBI's clearance, unless an extension is allowed.
100. Which fish farming technology turns waste into feed inside the pond itself?
A. Cage farming B. Bio-floc technology C. RAS D. Trawling E. Deep-sea fishing Answer: B. Microbes in a bio-floc system recycle organic waste into protein-rich feed, which raises output and is more sustainable.
101. Mohsina Kidwai, who died in April 2026 aged 94, held which Union portfolio from 1986 to 1989?
A. Labour and Rehabilitation B. Health and Family Welfare C. Transport D. Urban Development E. Tourism Answer: D. She was Urban Development minister from October 1986 to December 1989; Health and Family Welfare was 1983 to 1986.
102. The new presidential term of Tô Lâm in Vietnam covers which period?
A. 2025-2030 B. 2026-2030 C. 2026-2036 D. 2027-2032 E. 2026-2031 Answer: E. The term runs 2026-2031, voted by the National Assembly on 7 April 2026.
103. ASISSE is meant to fill the data gap for which part of India's economy?
A. Informal unincorporated shops B. Factory manufacturing C. Formal incorporated services D. Farming Answer: C. ASISSE covers registered service companies and LLPs.
104. What is the yearly amount India pays to foreign shipping lines, as noted for the 20 maritime reforms?
A. About $10 billion B. About $25 billion C. About $75 billion D. About $150 billion Answer: C. The estimated annual freight outgo is roughly $75 billion.
105. IRDAI's new sub-committee reviewing private health insurance functions under which body?
A. Insurance Advisory Committee B. Financial Stability Council C. NITI Aayog D. Competition Commission of India Answer: A. The high-level sub-committee was constituted under IRDAI's Insurance Advisory Committee.
106. Under which law are National Biodiversity Repositories designated in India?
A. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 B. Biological Diversity Act, 2002 C. Forest Conservation Act, 1980 D. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 E. Environment Protection Act, 1986 Answer: B. Section 39 of this Act provides for notifying national repositories that keep voucher specimens and help validate biodiversity science.
107. What is the Service Module (SM) chiefly responsible for in the Gaganyaan mission?
A. Storing research samples B. Making spacewalks possible C. Serving as the landing gear D. Supplying propulsion and power support E. Carrying the astronauts Answer: D. Often described as the spacecraft's engine room, it supplies thrust, electrical power and thermal control while in orbit.
108. Why are defunct satellites shifted to a 'Graveyard Orbit'?
A. To return them to Earth B. To study them C. To fix them later D. So that they do not collide with working satellites E. To recycle them Answer: D. Dead satellites are moved out of busy zones such as GEO, which lowers the chance of debris collisions.
109. Which theme does the International Election Visitors' Programme (IEVP) chiefly advance?
A. Cultural exchange B. Diplomacy centred on election management C. Tourism D. Military cooperation E. Trade agreements Answer: B. Election bodies from other countries can watch India's polls first-hand, encouraging exchange of knowledge and South-South cooperation.
110. In RBI's latest monetary policy, at what level was the Repo Rate set?
A. 5.25% B. 6.5% C. 6.0% D. 5.0% E. 4.5% Answer: A. The central bank left the rate untouched at 5.25 percent, citing uncertainty around the world and inflation risks.
111. What does 'Zero Trust Architecture' mean in IRDAI's cybersecurity guidelines?
A. Data may be shared without limits B. Only external threats are considered C. No verification is needed D. All internal users are trusted E. No user or system is trusted automatically Answer: E. Users and devices must be verified continuously, whatever their location, to keep cyber threats out.
112. What will RBI's proposal to scrap IFR mainly achieve?
A. Higher interest rates B. A halt to lending C. Release of capital held by banks D. Fewer NPAs E. Higher inflation Answer: C. Removing it would free up around ₹35,000 to ₹40,000 crore, helping banks strengthen capital adequacy and lend more.
113. In RBI's Scale-Based Regulation, the top NBFCs that must get listed are placed in which layer?
A. Core Layer B. Top Layer C. Upper Layer D. Middle Layer E. Base Layer Answer: C. Systemically important NBFCs sit in this layer and face tougher rules, including compulsory listing.
114. What mainly explains the lower CO₂e emissions seen under the 'Soil Sakhi' initiative?
A. Using less fertilizer B. Organic exports C. Crop diversification D. Mechanisation E. More irrigation Answer: A. Soil testing lets farmers apply nutrients accurately, cutting wasteful fertilizer use and the greenhouse gases that come with it.
115. How are 'Soil Sakhis' best characterised?
A. Bank representatives B. NGO volunteers C. Agricultural scientists D. Government officers E. Community agronomists Answer: E. They are trained women from rural areas who offer soil testing and scientific farming advice to farmers on the ground.
116. Under which section of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 does the NBA notify National Repositories?
A. Section 3 B. Section 21 C. Section 39 D. Section 45 Answer: C. National Repositories are designated under Section 39 of the Act.
117. Which rocket is being human-rated for the Gaganyaan programme?
A. PSLV B. GSLV Mk II C. SSLV D. LVM3 Answer: D. The Human-Rated LVM3 (HLVM3) is used for Gaganyaan.
118. How many Indian satellites were operational according to ISSAR 2025?
A. 86 B. 50 C. 27 D. 12 Answer: C. Of 86 Indian satellites in orbit, 27 are active.
119. Which institution organises the International Election Visitors' Programme 2026?
A. Election Commission of India B. Ministry of External Affairs C. NITI Aayog D. Supreme Court Answer: A. The ECI launched and runs the IEVP.
120. Who first proposed that India host COP33 in 2028, at COP28 in Dubai?
A. Environment Minister B. Prime Minister Narendra Modi C. President of India D. UN Secretary-General Answer: B. The proposal was championed by PM Modi at COP28 in 2023.
121. The NITI Aayog report 'From Borrowers to Builders' puts women's portion of India's total system credit in 2025 at:
A. 19% B. 16% C. 42% D. 26% E. 36% Answer: D. Women account for roughly ₹76 lakh crore of outstanding credit, which works out to 26% and shows a big gain in financial inclusion and entrepreneurship.
122. Women business borrowers grew fastest, at a 59% CAGR, in which state according to the report?
A. Madhya Pradesh B. Rajasthan C. Haryana D. Bihar E. Uttar Pradesh Answer: D. Bihar was the quickest-growing state for women-led borrowing, posting a 59% CAGR.
123. Where is India's first Quantum Reference Facility coming up?
A. IIT Delhi B. ISRO Bengaluru C. SRM University-AP D. TIFR Mumbai E. IISc Bengaluru Answer: C. It forms part of the Amaravati Quantum Valley effort and will serve as a standard test bed for quantum technologies.
124. What is a Quantum Reference Facility mainly meant to do?
A. Teach classical computing to students B. Make semiconductors C. Build mobile apps D. Archive scientific data E. Offer standardised testing for quantum components Answer: E. It works as a 'gold standard' platform where quantum hardware parts can be checked and calibrated.
125. The top loan amount in the 'Tarun Plus' band of the PM MUDRA Yojana is:
A. ₹10 Lakh B. ₹15 Lakh C. ₹5 Lakh D. ₹25 Lakh E. ₹20 Lakh Answer: E. Added in 2024, Tarun Plus lends between ₹10 lakh and ₹20 lakh to businesses that have already repaid earlier loans.
126. What distance is set as the goal for India's quantum communication network under the National Quantum Mission?
A. 500 km B. 2,000 km C. 1,500 km D. 1,000 km E. 5,000 km Answer: B. Secure communication over 1,000 km has been achieved already, and the mission aims to double that range.
127. An RBI proposal would add a one-hour delay to digital payments exceeding which amount?
A. ₹50,000 B. ₹5,000 C. ₹10,000 D. ₹25,000 E. ₹1,00,000 Answer: C. The delay on transfers above ₹10,000 is proposed as a safeguard against Authorised Push Payment fraud.
128. In RBI's fraud-prevention proposal, the 'Kill Switch' lets customers:
A. Switch off digital payments at once B. Reset their PIN automatically C. Block ATM cards for good D. Raise their transaction ceilings E. Shut their bank accounts Answer: A. It is a protective feature that allows a user to halt digital transactions immediately if fraud is suspected.
129. Under RBI's new remittance rules, Nostro accounts must be reconciled within at most:
A. 1 hour B. By end of day C. 15 minutes D. 30 minutes E. 4 hours Answer: A. Banks must reconcile their Nostro accounts inside an hour so that incoming remittances are credited faster.
130. A 'Net Liquidity Surplus' in the banking system tells us that:
A. People are withdrawing lots of cash B. Banks hold spare funds available for lending C. The RBI has raised the CRR D. Forex reserves are dropping E. Banks are short of money Answer: B. Surplus liquidity means banks have more money than they need and may leave the extra with the RBI rather than borrow.
131. The Maha Vir Chakra is which rank among India's gallantry awards?
A. Highest B. Second-highest C. Third-highest D. Fourth-highest E. Fifth-highest Answer: B. The Maha Vir Chakra is the second-highest gallantry award, after the Param Vir Chakra.
132. In NITI Aayog's 'From Borrowers to Builders' report, what share of India's system credit did women hold as of 2025?
A. 36% B. 16% C. 19% D. 26% Answer: D. Women's ₹76 lakh crore portfolio is 26% of system credit.
133. Where is India's first Quantum Reference Facility located?
A. IISc Bengaluru B. IIT Madras C. SRM University-AP D. TIFR Mumbai Answer: C. The QRF is at SRM University-AP, the centre of Amaravati Quantum Valley.
134. Under PM MUDRA Yojana, up to what loan amount does the Tarun Plus category extend?
A. ₹5 lakh B. ₹10 lakh C. ₹15 lakh D. ₹20 lakh Answer: D. Tarun Plus covers ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh for those who repaid Tarun loans.
135. What is the target length of the pan-India quantum communication network under the National Quantum Mission?
A. 500 km B. 1,000 km C. 2,000 km D. 5,000 km Answer: C. 1,000 km achieved is the halfway mark to 2,000 km.
136. ISRO's Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT-02) is linked to which mission?
A. Chandrayaan-3 B. Aditya-L1 C. Mangalyaan D. Gaganyaan E. RISAT Answer: D. The test falls under the Gaganyaan programme and checks the systems used to recover the crew module safely.
137. What was IADT-02 chiefly intended to verify?
A. Rocket propulsion B. Astronaut training systems C. Satellite launching D. The parachute-based deceleration system E. Communication systems Answer: D. It confirmed that the parachutes can slow the crew module down safely as it comes back through the atmosphere.
138. Under which ministry does the National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation function?
A. Ministry of Finance B. Ministry of Tribal Affairs C. Ministry of Rural Development D. Ministry of MSME E. Ministry of Social Justice Answer: B. NSTFDC is a public sector undertaking of the Tribal Affairs ministry that backs entrepreneurship among tribal communities.
139. NSTFDC's principal activity is which of the following?
A. Lending at concessional rates for income-generating activities B. Handing out free subsidies C. Providing government jobs D. Investing in large industries E. Maintaining tribal land records Answer: A. It gives Scheduled Tribes cheap loans so that they can build sustainable livelihoods and businesses.
140. At the outset, how many forces fall under the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Act, 2026?
A. Three B. Four C. Seven D. All police forces E. Five Answer: E. CRPF, BSF, CISF, ITBP and SSB, collectively called the 'Big Five' CAPFs, are covered.
141. What share of Director General posts in CAPFs does the CAPF Act 2026 reserve for IPS officers?
A. 50% B. 67% C. 100% D. 75% E. 25% Answer: C. Every DG and Special DG post in these forces is to be held by IPS officers on deputation.
142. What asset size, per RBI's draft norms, places an NBFC in the Upper Layer?
A. ₹50,000 Crore B. ₹75,000 Crore C. ₹1 Trillion D. ₹5 Trillion E. ₹10 Trillion Answer: C. Crossing ₹1 trillion brings an NBFC under stricter regulation that resembles the rules for banks.
143. To leave the Upper Layer, an NBFC must stay below the threshold for how many years in a row?
A. 5 years B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 3 years E. 10 years Answer: A. A five-year persistence rule has been brought in so that firms do not keep hopping between regulatory layers.
144. What is meant by 'arbitrage' in the context of RBI's recent warning?
A. Fixing exchange rates B. A government subsidy C. Printing currency D. Collecting taxes E. Earning profit from price gaps between different markets Answer: E. It means taking advantage of the price difference of the same asset, such as a currency, across markets.
145. What consequence followed when banks bought dollars at home and sold them abroad?
A. The Rupee strengthened B. The Rupee weakened further C. RBI reserves rose D. Inflation fell E. There was no impact Answer: B. Heavy dollar demand in the domestic market added pressure on the Rupee and pushed it lower.
146. What was the quorum required in Iraq's 329-seat Parliament for the presidential vote?
A. 165 B. 200 C. 220 D. 250 E. 329 Answer: C. The quorum was 220, and about 250 lawmakers took part in the vote.
147. The 2026 World Parkinson's Day theme mainly draws attention to which issue?
A. Shortage of research funding B. Unequal access to treatment C. Rising cases among children D. Lack of trained nurses E. Air pollution exposure Answer: B. The theme focuses on disparities in treatment access despite medical advances.
148. Djibouti's April 2026 presidential election saw the incumbent secure which term in office?
A. Third B. Fourth C. Fifth D. Sixth E. Seventh Answer: D. Guelleh, in office since 1999, was re-elected for a sixth term.
149. What did ISRO's IADT-02 mainly validate for the Gaganyaan Crew Module?
A. Rocket propulsion B. Astronaut endurance in high-G C. A communication satellite launch D. The parachute-based deceleration system Answer: D. IADT-02 tested the parachute-based deceleration system under real conditions.
150. The NSTFDC works as a Public Sector Undertaking under which Union Ministry?
A. Ministry of Finance B. Ministry of Tribal Affairs C. Ministry of MSME D. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment Answer: B. The notes place NSTFDC under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
151. The 'Womaniya' initiative belongs to which platform?
A. Startup India Hub B. BharatNet C. e-NAM D. Government e-Marketplace (GeM) E. Digital India Portal Answer: D. Womaniya is a special drive on GeM that links women-led micro and small enterprises directly with government buyers.
152. Under which ministry was Womaniya launched?
A. Ministry of Women & Child Development B. Ministry of Commerce & Industry C. Ministry of Rural Development D. Ministry of Finance E. Ministry of MSME Answer: B. The Commerce & Industry ministry started it in 2019 to empower women entrepreneurs.
153. The Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 is meant to take the place of which bodies?
A. UGC, AICTE and NCTE B. NITI Aayog and the Finance Commission C. RBI, SEBI and IRDAI D. ICAR, ICMR and CSIR E. UPSC, SSC and NTA Answer: A. The Bill folds several regulators of higher education into one unified authority.
154. Which areas of education are kept outside the reach of the VBSA Bill, 2025?
A. Vocational training B. Engineering and management C. Legal and medical education D. School education E. Agriculture and research Answer: C. They continue to be governed by specialised bodies, namely the Bar Council of India and the National Medical Commission.
155. India climbed to third place worldwide in renewable energy generation after overtaking which nation?
A. Germany B. Canada C. France D. Japan E. Brazil Answer: E. By passing Brazil, India reached the third position globally for installed renewable capacity.
156. What kind of body is the National Human Rights Commission?
A. A private organisation B. A constitutional body C. An advisory NGO D. A judicial body E. A statutory body Answer: E. It was set up through the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, which makes it statutory.
157. Which organisation released the fresh QR-code security standards for digital payments?
A. Ministry of Finance B. Bureau of Indian Standards C. SEBI D. NPCI E. RBI Answer: B. BIS lays down technical standards for digital payments, covering QR code security, biometrics and CBDC safeguards.
158. 'QR code redirection' in payment fraud means:
A. Sending payments to scammers' accounts using fake QR codes B. Making transactions faster C. Processing international transactions D. Routing payments through banks E. Connecting bank accounts to UPI Answer: A. Criminals swap genuine QR codes for malicious ones so that money lands in unauthorised accounts.
159. Where does India stand in global fish production under Blue Revolution 2.0?
A. 1st B. 3rd C. 4th D. 2nd E. 5th Answer: D. India ranks as the second-biggest producer of fish and aquaculture products in the world.
160. The National Mission on Natural Farming aims to set up how many Bio-Input Resource Centres?
A. 8,000 B. 20,000 C. 10,000 D. 5,000 E. 15,000 Answer: C. The target is 10,000 BRCs that will provide farmers with natural inputs such as Jeevamrut and Beejamrut.
161. Which golfer is NOT listed among the players with consecutive Masters wins alongside McIlroy?
A. Jack Nicklaus B. Nick Faldo C. Tiger Woods D. Phil Mickelson E. Rory McIlroy Answer: D. The consecutive champions are Nicklaus, Faldo, Woods and now McIlroy; Mickelson is not among them.
162. Which pair correctly matches Asha Bhosle's honours with years?
A. Padma Vibhushan 2000, Phalke 2008 B. Padma Vibhushan 2008, Phalke 2000 C. Padma Bhushan 2008, Phalke 2011 D. Padma Vibhushan 2011, Phalke 2000 E. Padma Shri 2000, Phalke 2008 Answer: B. Phalke Award was 2000 and Padma Vibhushan 2008.
163. What was the voter turnout in Hungary's 2026 election?
A. 68.40% B. 71.20% C. 74.50% D. 78.99% E. 85.10% Answer: D. Turnout was 78.99%, the highest since 1990.
164. The 65th anniversary event of human spaceflight in April 2026 was held in Delhi at which venue?
A. National Science Centre B. Nehru Planetarium C. Jantar Mantar D. Indira Gandhi Planetarium E. Rashtrapati Bhavan Answer: B. The event took place at Nehru Planetarium under the Prime Ministers' Museum and Library.
165. Radio Sikkim Sundari is described as the first of which kind of station in Sikkim?
A. Commercial FM channel B. Border Village Community Radio Station C. Satellite radio channel D. Short-wave relay E. Online podcast network Answer: B. It is Sikkim's first Border Village Community Radio Station.
166. Why is the Ganges River Dolphin regarded as an 'indicator species'?
A. It features in religious rituals B. It directly controls fish numbers C. It tolerates pollution very well D. Its presence shows how healthy the river ecosystem is E. It migrates across many countries Answer: D. A flourishing dolphin population signals clean water and a balanced river ecosystem.
167. Which ecological danger mainly arises when dams fragment a river?
A. More rainfall B. A shrinking gene pool from isolated populations C. Better biodiversity D. Warmer water E. More fish Answer: B. Fragmented habitats isolate dolphin groups, leading to inbreeding and lower genetic diversity, which leaves the species more vulnerable.
168. In which year did Arunachal Pradesh get full statehood?
A. 1987 B. 2000 C. 1991 D. 1980 E. 1972 Answer: A. The region became a Union Territory in 1972 and was elevated to a full state in 1987.
169. At which event was the McMahon Line put forward?
A. The Tashkent Agreement B. The Panchsheel Agreement C. The Shimla Agreement of 1972 D. The Treaty of Versailles E. The Simla Convention of 1914 Answer: E. British India and Tibet took part in that 1914 meeting, and the line became the basis for India's eastern boundary.
170. Which statement best defines 'Lawfare' in geopolitics?
A. Cultural diplomacy B. Cyber attacks with digital tools C. Using legal tools and maps to back territorial claims D. Imposing sanctions to weaken a country E. Using military force to gain land Answer: C. It is the strategic use of legal systems, names and maps to strengthen claims, as China's renaming approach shows.
171. In UPI, what is a Virtual Payment Address (VPA) mainly used for?
A. Working as a credit card B. Offering loans C. Transacting without revealing bank details D. Replacing Aadhaar authentication E. Storing money digitally Answer: C. With a VPA, people can pay and receive money without exposing details like the account number or IFSC code.
172. Who developed the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
A. NPCI B. NABARD C. Ministry of Finance D. SEBI E. RBI Answer: A. The National Payments Corporation of India built UPI, while RBI plays the role of regulator.
173. What reason led RBI to turn down universal bank licence applications from Ujjivan and Jana SFBs?
A. Foreign ownership problems B. Low profitability C. High exposure to inflation D. Low capital adequacy E. Insufficient diversification of the loan portfolio Answer: E. The regulator wanted varied loan books, and heavy reliance on microfinance made the two banks unfit for universal status.
174. What is the chief shortcoming of using granular urea in India?
A. Need for special machinery B. Low Nutrient Use Efficiency (NUE) C. Hard to store D. Limited availability E. High cost Answer: B. Plants use only 35 to 40 percent of its nitrogen, and the remainder is lost through leaching and volatilisation, which pollutes.
175. Why do fertilizer reforms favour Triple Super Phosphate (TSP) over DAP?
A. It makes irrigation more efficient B. It costs less than urea C. It is fully organic D. It avoids needless nitrogen application E. It has more nitrogen Answer: D. Unlike DAP, TSP has no nitrogen, which helps fix the nutrient imbalance and trims excess nitrogen use.
176. Operation Meghdoot saw Indian troops secure positions at which pass on the Siachen Glacier?
A. Khardung La B. Bilafond La C. Zoji La D. Nathu La E. Baralacha La Answer: B. Troops secured strategic positions at Bilafond La during Operation Meghdoot.
177. The Jallianwala Bagh crowd had gathered during which festival, amid protests against the Rowlatt Act?
A. Diwali B. Lohri C. Baisakhi D. Holi E. Eid Answer: C. The gathering took place on Baisakhi, 13 April 1919, in protest against the Rowlatt Act.
178. The F404-IN20 engine under the new depot arrangement powers which Indian aircraft?
A. Su-30MKI B. LCA Tejas C. Rafale D. Jaguar E. MiG-29 Answer: B. These engines power the indigenous Light Combat Aircraft, the LCA Tejas.
179. Gigin Technologies expects how many verified job opportunities annually under its MoU?
A. 2-3 lakh B. 6 lakh C. 10 lakh D. 30 lakh E. 50,000 Answer: A. Gigin is expected to enable 2-3 lakh verified opportunities every year.
180. Which observance number was World Chagas Disease Day in 2026?
A. 3rd B. 5th C. 6th D. 7th E. 10th Answer: D. First observed in 2020, 2026 was the 7th.
181. In the UNDP report's severe conflict scenario, India's poverty rate is projected to reach:
A. 22.5% B. 23.0% C. 23.9% D. 25.5% E. 24.2% Answer: E. The report models a harsh 28-day conflict in which poverty would climb from 23.9% to 24.2%.
182. The report expects disruption at which key maritime chokepoint to hurt India's trade and energy supplies?
A. Strait of Hormuz B. Panama Canal C. Bosphorus Strait D. Suez Canal E. Strait of Malacca Answer: A. A large share of the world's oil moves through Hormuz, so trouble there hits India's energy imports and shipping logistics.
183. The Amaravati Quantum Reference Facilities are meant to build which strategic strength for India?
A. Sovereign hardware development B. Mechanised agriculture C. Software outsourcing D. Tourism infrastructure E. Textile exports Answer: A. AQRF seeks to make India self-reliant in quantum hardware through home-grown supply chains and open access to vital components.
184. Which Article did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar call the 'Heart and Soul' of the Constitution?
A. Article 19 B. Article 17 C. Article 14 D. Article 32 E. Article 21 Answer: D. Article 32 lets people go to court to enforce their Fundamental Rights, which is why it sits at the centre of constitutional protection.
185. Under Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0, the government's money mainly goes into:
A. State governments B. SEBI-registered AIFs C. Public sector enterprises D. Startups directly E. Foreign venture capital firms Answer: B. Funds flow via Alternative Investment Funds that then back startups, drawing in extra private capital.
186. Why did the IMF raise its FY27 growth forecast for India?
A. Imports fell B. Oil output went up C. US tariffs on Indian goods were reduced D. The population grew E. Subsidies increased Answer: C. A steep drop in US tariffs, from 50% to 10%, makes Indian exports more competitive.
187. When Fitch upgraded Shriram Finance to 'BBB-', it meant the company is now:
A. Loss-making B. Owned by the government C. A high-risk investment D. In default E. Rated investment grade Answer: E. The move from BB+ to BBB- lifts it out of speculative or junk territory into investment grade, easing its borrowing.
188. Within RBI's Utkarsh 2029 strategy, the Unified Lending Interface is intended to:
A. Keep inflation in check B. Improve share trading C. Make digital access to credit smoother D. Manage printing of currency E. Take UPI's place Answer: C. ULI enables seamless data flow for quicker credit appraisal, helping farmers and small borrowers in particular.
189. The principal goal of the new digital fertilizer tracking system is to:
A. Push up fertilizer prices B. Promote only organic farming C. Lower crop output D. Stop subsidised fertilizer from being diverted or misused E. Raise exports Answer: D. Digital tracking and authentication make sure fertilizer reaches real farmers, cutting subsidy leakage.
190. How is it proposed to verify farmers in the digital fertilizer system?
A. Passport B. Aadhaar-linked biometrics or OTP C. Bank passbook D. PAN card E. Driving licence Answer: B. Aadhaar-based authentication lets only genuine farmers buy fertilizer and makes the process more transparent.
191. Which pair was sworn in as Deputy Chief Ministers of Bihar alongside Samrat Choudhary in April 2026?
A. Vijay Kumar Chaudhary and Bijendra Prasad Yadav B. Tarkishore Prasad and Renu Devi C. Sushil Modi and Vijay Sinha D. Mangal Pandey and Nand Kishore Yadav E. Samrat Choudhary and Vijay Sinha Answer: A. Vijay Kumar Chaudhary and Bijendra Prasad Yadav were named Deputy CMs.
192. Which theme was chosen for World Art Day 2026?
A. Art for Peace B. Colours of Unity C. A Garden of Expression: Cultivating Community Through Art D. Creativity Without Borders E. Heritage in Motion Answer: C. The 2026 theme is 'A Garden of Expression: Cultivating Community Through Art'.
193. Roughly how many stakeholders does the Digital Intelligence Platform connect?
A. Over 140 B. Over 400 C. Over 1,400 D. Over 14,000 E. Over 40,000 Answer: C. The platform links over 1,400 stakeholders for real-time information sharing.
194. According to the UNDP report on West Asia escalation, India's poverty headcount could rise to roughly how many people?
A. 1.5 million B. 5.0 million C. 2.5 million D. 8.8 million Answer: C. The rise is projected from about 400,000 to 2.5 million.
195. Which AQRF node at Medha Towers, Gannavaram, offers industrial testbeds to certify quantum devices?
A. Amaravati 1S B. Amaravati 1Q C. Amaravati 2Q D. Amaravati 1R Answer: B. Amaravati 1Q focuses on commercialisation and testing.
196. What upper limit on Lok Sabha strength does the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 propose?
A. 543 B. 850 C. 750 D. 815 E. 900 Answer: B. The Bill would enlarge the House to 850 members, of whom 815 come from states and 35 from Union Territories, to match present population.
197. Which Article would permit delimitation straight away using the existing census figures under the Bill?
A. Article 82 B. Article 81 C. Article 324 D. Article 110 E. Article 356 Answer: A. The amendment drops the earlier curb tied to the post-2026 Census, so delimitation can use the latest data, that of 2011.
198. The 'Ease of Doing R&D in India' report names how many pillars?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 4 Answer: E. Its four pillars are Funding, Governance, Regulatory Frameworks and Research Translation.
199. Roughly what share of India's bat species is listed as 'Data Deficient'?
A. 10% B. 20% C. 40% D. 30% E. 50% Answer: C. About two-fifths of bat species do not have enough information to allow a proper conservation assessment.
200. What significant change did RBI make for NBFCs opening branches?
A. RBI approval is compulsory for every branch B. New branches are banned C. Prior approval is no longer needed unless restricted D. Only digital branches are allowed E. Expansion is allowed only in rural areas Answer: C. The approval requirement was removed to support ease of doing business and quicker growth of NBFCs.
201. Which minimum credit rating must deposit-taking NBFCs hold to expand across the whole country?
A. AA B. BBB C. A D. A+ E. AAA Answer: A. Nationwide expansion is open only to those with NOF above ₹50 crore and a rating of AA or better.
202. Under SEBI's new rule, by how much can an IPO's size change without filing the DRHP again?
A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 60% E. Up to 50% Answer: E. Companies may adjust the size of the issue by as much as half without refiling, which gives the market more flexibility.
203. Until what date do SEBI's relaxed IPO norms remain in force?
A. June 2026 B. 30 September 2026 C. July 2026 D. August 2026 E. December 2026 Answer: B. The relief is a temporary measure meant to assist companies while markets are volatile, and lapses on that date.
204. What is the chief purpose of the digital system for tracking fertilizer?
A. Raising fertilizer exports B. Encouraging organic farming C. Lowering fertilizer production D. Preventing subsidised fertilizer from being diverted or misused E. Ending subsidies Answer: D. Digital tracking and authentication are meant to stop subsidised product from leaking into non-farm uses.
205. What mode of authentication is proposed for farmers in the new fertilizer system?
A. PAN Card B. Voter ID C. Driving License D. Aadhaar-based biometric or OTP E. Passport Answer: D. Verification through Aadhaar would ensure that only genuine farmers can buy the fertilizer.
206. About how many jobs are projected from the Dholera chip fabrication facility?
A. 5,000 B. 11,000 C. 21,000 D. 50,000 E. 91,000 Answer: C. Around 21,000 jobs are projected.
207. Who is the Vice-Chair of the AIGEG?
A. S. Krishnan B. Ashwini Vaishnaw C. Piyush Goyal D. Jitin Prasada E. Rajeev Chandrasekhar Answer: D. Minister of State Jitin Prasada is Vice-Chair.
208. Which pair of technologies does the WEF outlook highlight as growth enablers?
A. Blockchain and 3D printing B. AI and quantum computing C. Robotics and drones D. Biotech and nuclear fusion E. 5G and satellites Answer: B. The report names AI and quantum computing as enabling technologies.
209. The Meghalaya Official Languages Ordinance, 2026 was approved by which body on 16 April?
A. State Assembly B. Governor alone C. State Cabinet D. High Court E. Legislative Council Answer: C. The state Cabinet approved the ordinance on 16 April 2026.
210. Who among the following was listed as a diaspora leader, not one of the three Indians, on TIME100 2026?
A. Sundar Pichai B. Vikas Khanna C. Ranbir Kapoor D. Neal Mohan E. Reid Wiseman Answer: D. The three Indian honourees were Pichai, Khanna and Kapoor; Neal Mohan appeared as a diaspora leader.
211. What trait of the NRLM's Self-Help Group model makes it easy to adopt in African nations?
A. A focus on urban jobs only B. A community-led, low-cost design C. Compulsory government jobs D. Capital-heavy infrastructure E. Dependence on foreign aid Answer: B. SHGs run on community participation and need little capital, so the model suits developing economies, particularly in Africa.
212. The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 is mainly aimed at:
A. Creating new Union Territories B. Bringing GST reforms to UTs C. Applying parliamentary reforms uniformly across the UTs D. Expanding the Governor's powers E. Scrapping UT Legislative Assemblies Answer: C. It brings Delhi, Puducherry and J&K in line with national reforms like women's reservation and delimitation under the 131st Constitutional Amendment.
213. In the Urban Challenge Fund, what is the Credit Repayment Guarantee Sub-Scheme designed to do?
A. Give free housing to the urban poor B. Subsidise fuel C. Finance metro rail D. Guarantee loans so that lenders face less risk E. Fund private companies directly Answer: D. By guaranteeing repayment, it lowers the perceived risk for lenders and helps smaller cities obtain credit.
214. Which statement describes the 'Lakhpati Didi' initiative?
A. Women who are government officers B. Women entrepreneurs in big cities C. Women given a ₹1 lakh subsidy D. Women who earn more than ₹1 lakh a year E. Women owning land worth over ₹1 lakh Answer: D. The term covers SHG women members whose yearly income exceeds ₹1 lakh, a sign of economic empowerment under NRLM.
215. Which body sets and monitors CAFE standards in India?
A. NITI Aayog B. Central Pollution Control Board C. Bureau of Energy Efficiency D. Ministry of Transport E. Automotive Research Association of India Answer: C. BEE, which works under the Ministry of Power, lays down and oversees the fuel efficiency and CO₂ emission norms.
216. India fell to sixth place in the IMF's 2026 GDP ranking mainly because of:
A. The rupee weakening against the US dollar B. A wider fiscal deficit C. Slower real GDP growth D. Lower exports E. High unemployment Answer: A. Rankings are compared in dollars, so a weaker rupee shrank India's dollar GDP even though growth stayed strong in rupee terms.
217. What big change did SEBI make to its 'Fit and Proper Person' test in April 2026?
A. All eligibility norms scrapped B. A lifetime ban for intermediaries C. Disqualification based on media reports D. Automatic disqualification once an FIR is filed E. Disqualification will follow only a conviction Answer: E. SEBI moved to a conviction-based test to avoid disqualifying people too early and to be fair.
218. LIC's 'Super Sales Saathi' app is chiefly meant to:
A. Track the stock market B. Assist LIC agents with their sales C. Process loan approvals D. Track government subsidies E. Resolve customer complaints Answer: B. The app gives agents AI-driven tools, performance analytics and customer insights to raise productivity.
219. Which segment does CRISIL see as the most exposed to stress from the West Asia conflict?
A. Agricultural loans B. Corporate loans C. Government borrowings D. Retail housing loans E. MSME loans Answer: E. Small firms are hit by rising input costs and supply disruptions and have little financial cushion.
220. What is meant by the 'seasoning' of a loan portfolio?
A. Loans maturing in age so their risk profile shows B. A government loan waiver C. Restructuring loans D. Spreading across loan categories E. Raising loan interest rates Answer: A. As loans get older, borrowers' repayment patterns become evident, which helps judge the true chance of default.
221. Who ranked second globally in the Bloomberg Billionaires Index cited in this report?
A. Jeff Bezos B. Larry Page C. Gautam Adani D. Mark Zuckerberg E. Elon Musk Answer: B. Larry Page was second with USD 286 billion, ahead of Jeff Bezos at USD 269 billion.
222. World Haemophilia Day was first marked by the World Federation of Hemophilia in which year?
A. 1979 B. 1985 C. 1989 D. 1995 E. 2000 Answer: C. The WFH initiated the observance in 1989, first held on 17 April that year.
223. The 2026 theme of the day focuses mainly on:
A. Digital archiving of monuments B. Tourism revenue from heritage C. Emergency response for living heritage in conflicts and disasters D. Funding for museum restoration E. Heritage education in schools Answer: C. The 2026 theme concerns emergency response for living heritage during conflicts and disasters.
224. What allocation did Union Budget 2026-27 give to the NRLM, as per these notes?
A. ₹10,000 crore B. ₹15,500 crore C. ₹25,000 crore D. ₹19,200 crore Answer: D. The allocation noted is ₹19,200 crore.
225. What is the legal status of NBCFDC under company law?
A. For-profit public limited company B. Statutory body under an Act of Parliament C. Cooperative society D. Section 8 not-for-profit company Answer: D. NBCFDC is a not-for-profit Section 8 company.
226. Who retains ownership of assets that are leased to private players under the National Monetisation Pipeline?
A. The government keeps ownership B. Ownership moves to RBI C. Ownership goes to the investors D. Ownership is split equally E. Ownership passes permanently to the private party Answer: A. Only the right to operate is handed over for a set period, and the asset itself continues to belong to the Government of India.
227. Which one is an instance of a 'Brownfield Asset' in infrastructure?
A. A river linking project B. A proposed airport C. Forest land cleared for industry D. A newly planned highway E. A functioning railway station Answer: E. Brownfield assets already exist and operate, earn revenue, and are therefore a safer bet for investors.
228. Where is India's first water-neutral railway depot situated?
A. Kolkata B. Delhi C. Ahmedabad D. Chennai E. Mumbai Answer: C. Ahmedabad's Kankaria Coaching Depot recycles all the water it uses, making it the country's first of this kind.
229. Which environment-friendly method treats wastewater at the Kankaria railway depot?
A. Filtration alone B. Distillation C. Phytoremediation D. Chlorination E. Reverse Osmosis Answer: C. Plants take up the pollutants and purify the water naturally, which keeps the process sustainable.
230. What is the VAANI Scheme chiefly meant to accomplish?
A. Enabling technical education in Indian languages B. Promoting sports education C. Building new IITs D. Giving scholarships abroad E. Promoting English-only education Answer: A. By offering technical courses in 22 Indian languages, it seeks to open such education to many more learners.
231. The RELIEF (Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation) Scheme mainly seeks to do what?
A. Finance startups B. Raise GST revenue C. Cut import duties D. Promote domestic tourism E. Help exporters cope with logistics disruptions Answer: E. It assists exporters who face higher logistics costs and risks arising from geopolitical conflicts.
232. Which body implements the RELIEF scheme?
A. SIDBI B. ECGC Limited C. NABARD D. SEBI E. RBI Answer: B. ECGC Limited is the agency in charge, offering exporters risk cover along with financial support.
233. What is a Maritime Insurance Pool chiefly designed for?
A. Subsidising fuel B. Cutting port taxes C. Regulating shipping routes D. Spreading high-risk cover among several insurers E. Lending to shipping firms Answer: D. Several insurers share the risk jointly, which is useful in dangerous geopolitical conditions.
234. What does the Association of Mutual Funds in India mainly do?
A. Sets repo rates B. Issues currency C. Runs stock exchanges D. Speaks for the mutual fund industry and promotes investor awareness E. Regulates banks Answer: D. AMFI is a self-regulatory body that encourages ethical conduct and investor education within the mutual fund sector.
235. In India's economic setting, what is 'Imported Inflation'?
A. Inflation from population growth B. Price rises caused by higher global prices and a weaker currency C. Inflation from subsidies D. Inflation from tax hikes E. Inflation from domestic demand Answer: B. It arises when costs abroad, for example crude oil, go up and a falling rupee raises the domestic price level further.
236. In which city were the Laureus World Sports Awards 2026 held?
A. Paris B. London C. Madrid D. Monaco E. Berlin Answer: C. The ceremony took place in Madrid on 20 April 2026.
237. What score did Aronyak Ghosh make at the Bangkok Chess Club Open 2026 to tie for first?
A. 6/9 B. 6.5/9 C. 7/9 D. 7.5/9 E. 8/9 Answer: C. He scored an unbeaten 7/9 with a performance rating of 2584.
238. Which agreement did India and South Korea resume talks to upgrade during the April 2026 visit?
A. CEPA B. RCEP C. DTAA D. BIT E. FTA with ASEAN Answer: A. Negotiations to upgrade the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) were resumed.
239. What happens to asset ownership under the National Monetisation Pipeline?
A. Passes permanently to the private player B. Remains with the Government of India C. Split 50-50 D. Goes to the World Bank Answer: B. The government retains ownership and leases only operating rights.
240. In which city is India's first water-neutral railway depot located?
A. Chennai B. Mumbai C. New Delhi D. Ahmedabad Answer: D. The Kankaria Coaching Depot is in Ahmedabad.
241. Which parts of India are projected to see the largest relative rise in forest carbon storage by 2100?
A. Sundarbans B. Himalayan region C. Northeast India D. Western Ghats E. Rajasthan and Gujarat Answer: E. Dry and semi-dry regions have more room for plants to grow, helped by greater rainfall and the CO₂ fertilization effect.
242. What does 'CO₂ fertilization' mean for forests?
A. Greater CO₂ boosts photosynthesis and plant growth B. CO₂ works as a pesticide C. CO₂ stunts plant growth D. CO₂ raises forest fire risk E. CO₂ wipes out soil nutrients Answer: A. More carbon dioxide in the air lets plants photosynthesise more and grow faster, as long as water and nutrients are adequate.
243. In what kind of orbit will ISRO's proposed G20 Satellite operate?
A. Geostationary orbit B. Lunar orbit C. Elliptical orbit D. Sun-synchronous polar orbit E. Random low Earth orbit Answer: D. Such an orbit passes over any given place at the same local time each day, so environmental readings stay consistent.
244. Which G20 Satellite instrument is built to measure greenhouse gases such as CO₂ and methane?
A. POLSAC B. INSAT Sensor C. EnSAC D. SACFF E. HyMATHS Answer: C. EnSAC is made for detecting trace gases in the atmosphere that drive global warming.
245. What is the Vishwa Sutra initiative trying to achieve?
A. Raise cotton imports B. Promote only traditional dress in India C. Take Indian handloom designs global through fusion styles D. Prohibit synthetic fabrics E. Substitute machines for handlooms Answer: C. It blends Indian weaving traditions with international design sensibilities so they appeal in global fashion markets.
246. After SEBI's 2026 amendment, the smallest investment allowed in Social Impact Funds is:
A. ₹10,000 B. ₹1,000 C. ₹50,000 D. ₹2 lakh E. ₹5,000 Answer: B. SEBI brought the floor down from ₹2 lakh to ₹1,000 to draw in retail investors.
247. Within Alternative Investment Funds, Social Impact Funds are placed in which category?
A. Category IV B. Category II C. Category III D. A hybrid category E. Category I Answer: E. SIFs sit in Category I AIFs, the group that covers socially beneficial investments.
248. Why did the RBI relax curbs on Non-Deliverable Forwards in April 2026?
A. To steady the rupee and help manage risk B. To cut bank profits C. To encourage forex speculation D. To encourage retail trading E. To promote crypto trading Answer: A. The curbs were eased once forex markets had calmed, allowing risk management while still limiting speculation.
249. Net Open Position, in banking, refers to a bank's:
A. Count of branches B. Borrowings by the government C. Total loans issued D. Unhedged exposure to foreign exchange E. Total deposits Answer: D. It is the net risk a bank holds in foreign currencies that is not covered by hedging.
250. What is a Social Impact Fund chiefly set up to do?
A. Lend to the government B. Deliver social or environmental benefit as well as returns C. Invest only in overseas stocks D. Control inflation E. Maximise profits in the short run Answer: B. These funds back social enterprises and non-profits while aiming for measurable social impact.
251. World Creativity and Innovation Week, ending on the day, begins on the birthday of which figure?
A. Albert Einstein B. Leonardo da Vinci C. Isaac Newton D. Nikola Tesla E. Michelangelo Answer: B. The week starts on 15 April, Leonardo da Vinci's birthday.
252. Which PSU, along with Electro Pneumatics & Hydraulics, received the April 2026 TRAWL contract?
A. BEML B. BHEL C. Mazagon Dock D. Bharat Dynamics E. Cochin Shipyard Answer: A. BEML (Bharat Earth Movers Limited) signed with the Ministry of Defence.
253. The 7th India-Bhutan JGC meeting discussed a MoU on which subject?
A. Hydropower tariffs B. Pre-arrival customs data exchange C. Tourism visas D. Rail connectivity E. Currency swap Answer: B. A MoU on pre-arrival customs data exchange was among the topics.
254. What kind of delivery did the trial test?
A. Last-mile B. Middle-mile C. Cold-chain D. Cross-border E. Reverse logistics Answer: B. The trial tested intra-city middle-mile delivery between facilities.
255. Roughly what CO2 cut does EASyMelt target versus blast furnace operations?
A. Over 10% B. Over 25% C. Over 50% D. Over 75% E. 100% Answer: C. It aims for a reduction of over 50%.
256. The Fourth India-Africa Forum Summit 2026 signals a strategic change in India's approach to Africa. How is it best described?
A. A move from military alliance to peacekeeping B. A move from cultural exchange to tourism promotion C. A move from trade agreements to humanitarian aid alone D. A move from education support to withdrawing defence E. A move from development partnership towards strategic investment Answer: E. India is now putting more weight on FDI, infrastructure and long-term investment than on aid or concessional lines of credit.
257. What is the central idea of linking BharatNet infrastructure with the Samriddh Gram initiative?
A. Adding telecom towers in cities B. Giving villages satellite internet C. Turning fibre networks into services that citizens can actually use D. Privatising rural internet E. Removing physical governance Answer: C. BharatNet supplies connectivity, and Samriddh Gram makes sure healthcare, education and governance services actually reach people through it.
258. Compared with traditional materials, what is the main benefit of glass substrates in 3D Glass Semiconductor Packaging?
A. Lower manufacturing cost B. Greater flexibility and bending C. Better thermal stability and precision D. More transparency for monitoring E. Lower electricity needs Answer: C. Glass withstands high heat and allows denser interconnections, which suits advanced chips such as AI processors.
259. What does the 'Gene Drive' idea in genetically modified mosquitoes bring about?
A. Fast spread of the modified genes through the population B. An equal chance of passing on genes C. Inheritance only through males D. Wiping out all mosquito species E. Resistance to antibiotics Answer: A. A gene drive pushes the chance of inheritance above 90 percent, so altered traits spread rapidly in wild groups.
260. What chiefly lies behind India's climb to second place in wind energy installation?
A. Offshore wind farms in Kerala B. More turbine imports C. Less investment in solar D. Privatising electricity boards E. Big projects such as the Khavda Renewable Park Answer: E. Gujarat's Khavda Renewable Energy Park adds a large amount of wind and hybrid capacity.
261. Which set of factors best accounts for the Indian Rupee sliding to 93.44 per US Dollar?
A. High exports with low imports B. Volatile oil prices, a strong USD and RBI policy easing C. Falling gold prices with low inflation D. Rising FDI inflows E. A fall in stock market performance Answer: B. Costlier oil raises dollar demand, a strong dollar draws capital away, and easing by RBI lets the market push the rupee down more.
262. Adding Gold and Silver ETFs to equity schemes chiefly helps with what?
A. Higher tax liability B. Removing market risk C. Replacing equity holdings D. Better diversification and risk-adjusted returns E. Guaranteeing returns Answer: D. Precious metals frequently move opposite to equities, which lowers overall portfolio risk.
263. Within UCB licensing norms, what would a higher cap on unsecured advances mainly do?
A. Lower bank profitability B. Limit lending to small borrowers C. Remove banking risk D. Give more room to lend to borrowers lacking collateral E. Replace secured loans completely Answer: D. Banks could extend more credit to people without collateral, which supports financial inclusion.
264. Why does RBI's revised e-mandate framework require notice 24 hours ahead?
A. To raise banking charges B. To let customers opt out C. To slow down transactions D. To cut internet usage E. To end recurring payments Answer: B. The rule protects consumers by letting them cancel or change a payment before it is carried out.
265. What is the chief reason UNESCAP gives for India's slower GDP growth in FY27?
A. Geopolitical tensions around the world and energy disruptions B. Poor agricultural output C. A falling services sector D. Lower government spending E. A banking crisis Answer: A. The conflict in West Asia has upset energy supply chains, pushing up costs and holding back growth.
266. The 4th UNIDO Gender Equality Mobilisation Award was presented during which occasion in April 2026?
A. International Women's Day B. International Day of Women in Industry C. World Industry Day D. World Health Day E. Earth Day Answer: B. It was handed over in Vienna during International Day of Women in Industry celebrations.
267. The new Eveready plant is described as India's only operational facility making which product?
A. Lithium-ion cells B. Alkaline batteries C. Lead-acid batteries D. Solar panels E. LED lamps Answer: B. It is described as the only operational alkaline battery plant in India.
268. In which year was the third India-Africa Forum Summit held?
A. 2018 B. 2020 C. 2015 D. 2022 Answer: C. The fourth summit comes more than a decade after 2015.
269. Under which WSIS Action Line has India's Samriddh Gram been nominated for the WSIS Prizes 2026?
A. C1: Role of governments in ICT B. C4: Capacity building C. C7: E-health D. C6: Enabling environment Answer: D. The nomination is under Action Line C6: Enabling Environment.
270. Where is India's first 3D glass chip packaging facility being set up?
A. Bengaluru B. Hyderabad C. Ahmedabad D. Bhubaneswar Answer: D. The plant is in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
271. For rescuing submariners, INS Nireekshak carries which equipment?
A. A nuclear propulsion unit B. Anti-submarine helicopters C. Deep Submergence Rescue Vehicles D. Sonar missiles E. A ballistic radar system Answer: C. As a specialised diving support ship, it carries DSRVs used to save crews from stricken submarines lying deep underwater.
272. NARIT-AI mainly assists police in raising which aspect of NDPS cases?
A. Surveillance work B. The rate of arrests C. How fast forensic tests are done D. Following correct procedure during investigations E. Intelligence gathering Answer: D. The tool enforces strict legal procedure, so fewer accused walk free because of procedural mistakes in NDPS cases.
273. The 2026 Fourth India-Africa Forum Summit stresses alignment with which African development framework?
A. Agenda 2063 B. Vision 2050 C. AU 2040 Strategy D. Green Africa Mission E. Africa Growth Plan Answer: A. The summit aims to tie India's development initiatives to Africa's long-term strategic blueprint, Agenda 2063.
274. The RBI's 2026 draft norms cap the balance in a Full-KYC PPI at:
A. ₹10,00,000 B. ₹2,00,000 C. ₹1,00,000 D. ₹5,00,000 E. ₹50,000 Answer: B. A Full-KYC PPI may hold up to ₹2 lakh, which allows broader use including transfers and payments.
275. Which Indian payment system settles high-value transfers in real time?
A. RTGS B. BBPS C. UPI D. IMPS E. NEFT Answer: A. Real Time Gross Settlement handles large-value payments one at a time and instantly.
276. Under RBI's 2026 e-mandate framework, recurring debits up to what amount need no OTP in general?
A. ₹10,000 B. ₹15,000 C. ₹5,000 D. ₹50,000 E. ₹1,00,000 Answer: B. For ordinary recurring payments such as subscriptions, the OTP-free ceiling stands at ₹15,000.
277. What benefit does Pay Point India gain from direct access to the RBI's CPS?
A. Power to lend B. Freedom from regulation C. Power to print currency D. Settling directly with the RBI, with no sponsor bank needed E. Approval for cross-border transfers Answer: D. Direct access ends reliance on sponsor banks, which raises efficiency and lowers systemic risk.
278. The revised Sugarcane Control Order requires mills to pay farmers within:
A. 10 days B. 21 days C. 30 days D. 7 days E. 14 days Answer: E. The draft sets a 14-day deadline, after which mills would owe interest at 15% per year.
279. In the ethanol conversion formula, 600 litres of ethanol corresponds to what quantity of sugar?
A. 1.5 tonnes B. 750 kg C. 2 tonnes D. 500 kg E. 1 tonne Answer: E. This ratio is used by the government to keep track of how much sugar is diverted into ethanol.
280. In IIT Ropar's AI agriculture ecosystem, sensor data is gathered by which layer?
A. Engagement Layer B. Processing Layer C. Infrastructure Layer D. Intelligence Layer E. Advisory Layer Answer: C. That layer is made of IoT devices and weather stations that capture raw data from farms.
281. What is the 2026 theme of World Book and Copyright Day?
A. Books for Every Child B. Read Your World - Books as Bridges to Peace C. Words That Shape Us D. Reading for Tomorrow E. Stories Across Borders Answer: B. The 2026 theme is 'Read Your World - Books as Bridges to Peace'.
282. Shekha Jheel is a winter resting site on which migratory route?
A. East Asian-Australasian Flyway B. Central Asian Flyway C. Atlantic Flyway D. Pacific Americas Flyway E. Mississippi Flyway Answer: B. It is a key winter resting site on the Central Asian Flyway.
283. Nadendla Bhaskara Rao, a former Andhra CM who died in April 2026, is remembered for which 1984 political episode?
A. The "August Coup" B. The Emergency C. State reorganisation D. Mid-term polls E. A no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha Answer: A. He is remembered for the "August Coup" of 1984 that brought him to the CM post.
284. Gen Dwivedi is the how-manieth Indian Army chief inducted into the USAWC International Hall of Fame?
A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth E. Fifth Answer: C. He is the third, after Gen V.K. Singh and Gen Bikram Singh.
285. Kishor Patil, the new NASSCOM Vice Chairperson, leads which company?
A. Fractal B. Wipro C. KPIT Technologies D. Tech Mahindra E. Mphasis Answer: C. He is co-founder, CEO and Managing Director of KPIT Technologies.
286. Which statement on CAFE-III norms is accurate?
A. They are enforced by RBI B. They apply only to commercial vehicles C. They aim at the fleet-wide average emissions of each manufacturer D. They apply only to electric vehicles E. They cover emissions of single vehicles only Answer: C. The rules look at the average fuel efficiency and CO₂ output across a maker's entire range, rather than any one vehicle.
287. Which of these does NOT endanger the Gangetic River Dolphin?
A. River traffic B. Dams and barrages C. Afforestation programmes D. Fishing nets E. River pollution Answer: C. Planting trees benefits the environment, whereas pollution, dams, nets and boat traffic all damage dolphin habitat.
288. How is the stipend under the Prime Minister Internship Scheme (PMIS) mainly financed?
A. By government DBT together with a company contribution B. International agencies C. State governments D. NGOs only E. Companies only Answer: A. It is a hybrid arrangement: the government sends ₹5000 through DBT and companies add ₹500 from CSR money.
289. Within the NAMASTE scheme, who is a 'Sanipreneur'?
A. A waste recycler B. A municipal officer C. A manual scavenger D. A sanitation inspector E. A sanitation worker who has become an entrepreneur Answer: E. These are sanitation workers who start their own businesses using mechanised cleaning solutions with government help.
290. In an RBI context, what does a 'demand shock' mean?
A. A rise in employment B. A drop in spending by consumers C. A rise in exports D. A fall in inflation E. A rise in production Answer: B. Lasting inflation erodes purchasing power and cuts discretionary spending, which creates a demand shock.
291. What does HSBC's 'Underweight' rating on India signal?
A. That government ownership will rise B. That no investment is needed C. That it will match the benchmark D. That India is expected to underperform E. That strong growth is expected Answer: D. The rating suggests holding less of the asset, because it is expected to do worse than its peers or the benchmark.
292. What is meant by 'upstreaming of funds' in stock markets?
A. Investing funds in mutual funds B. Sending funds to SEBI C. Transferring funds to RBI D. Moving client funds to the clearing corporations E. Brokers putting money into stocks Answer: D. It prevents brokers from keeping client money overnight, as the funds go to clearing corporations, which adds safety.
293. The Central Fraud Registry (CFR) at present covers fraud cases above what amount?
A. ₹10 lakh B. ₹1 lakh C. ₹5 lakh D. ₹50,000 E. ₹10,000 Answer: B. Frauds of ₹1 lakh or more are logged so that they can be spotted and monitored early.
294. In the CRIF-SIDBI report, what does a rising number of loans with slower growth in value suggest?
A. That loans are getting smaller B. That banks are shutting down C. That interest rates are zero D. That lending has stopped E. That loans are getting larger Answer: A. More loans but slower growth in total amount points to a move towards smaller ticket sizes.
295. What led the government to raise its wheat procurement target in 2026?
A. Imports rose B. A crop failure happened C. MSP was under the market price D. Export demand went up E. Market prices stood below the MSP Answer: E. Farmers preferred selling to the government since the MSP of ₹2585 beat mandi rates, so procurement increased.
296. Who retired on 24 April 2026, making way for Justice Lisa Gill?
A. Justice Dhiraj Singh Thakur B. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud C. Justice Sanjiv Khanna D. Justice A.S. Oka E. Justice B.R. Gavai Answer: A. Justice Dhiraj Singh Thakur retired on 24 April 2026.
297. Vikram-1 was flagged off from Hyderabad en route to which launch site?
A. Kulasekarapattinam B. Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota C. Thumba D. Balasore E. Mahendragiri Answer: B. It travelled to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.
298. Under the CAFE-III super credit scheme discussed in April 2026, which technology gets the highest multiplier?
A. Strong hybrids B. Flex-fuel vehicles C. CNG vehicles D. Electric vehicles Answer: D. EVs are counted as 3 units, above hybrids (1.6) and FFVs (1.1).
299. Which species does the Dolphin Friends initiative aim to protect?
A. Irrawaddy dolphin B. Gangetic River Dolphin C. Indus river dolphin D. Finless porpoise Answer: B. The target species is the Gangetic River Dolphin.
300. Which ministry is the nodal agency for the Prime Minister Internship Scheme?
A. Labour and Employment B. Skill Development C. Corporate Affairs D. Education Answer: C. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs manages PMIS.
301. Project DANTAK of the Border Roads Organisation was set up in which year?
A. 1985 B. 1955 C. 1947 D. 1971 E. 1961 Answer: E. It began in April 1961 as a part of India-Bhutan cooperation on building infrastructure.
302. Project DANTAK helped build which major airport in Bhutan?
A. Thimphu Airport B. Paro International Airport C. Kathmandu Airport D. Bagdogra Airport E. Gelephu Airport Answer: B. DANTAK had a major role in constructing Paro, the main international entry point for Bhutan.
303. Which kind of vehicle is needed to run on E100, or pure ethanol?
A. Flex-Fuel Vehicle B. Hybrid vehicle C. Diesel vehicle D. Electric vehicle E. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicle Answer: A. Because ethanol is corrosive, E100 calls for flex-fuel vehicles fitted with special materials and sensors.
304. Which organisation launched the 'Soul Threads' initiative?
A. NIFT B. TRIFED C. Ministry of Culture D. CCIC E. KVIC Answer: D. The Central Cottage Industries Corporation of India started it to promote traditional crafts through modern design.
305. What smallest share of members must agree to a merger under the Anti-Defection Law for no disqualification?
A. One-half B. One-fourth C. One-third D. Two-thirds E. Three-fourths Answer: D. The Tenth Schedule shields members from disqualification only if at least two-thirds of them back the merger.
306. The 2026 Exercise Dustlik took place in which country?
A. Uzbekistan B. Kyrgyzstan C. Tajikistan D. Kazakhstan E. India Answer: A. The seventh Dustlik was held at the Gurumsaray Field Training Area in Uzbekistan.
307. Which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 allows RBI to cancel a bank's licence?
A. Section 35A B. Section 8 C. Section 22 D. Section 5(b) E. Section 44A Answer: C. Section 22 gives the RBI the power to issue banking licences and also to revoke them.
308. Banks are barred from trading in goods by which section of the Banking Regulation Act?
A. Section 22 B. Section 8 C. Section 5 D. Section 10 E. Section 35 Answer: B. That section stops banking companies from directly buying or selling goods.
309. Under the IBC (Amendment) Act, 2026, what share of debt must creditors hold to start an out-of-court resolution?
A. 40% B. 75% C. 51% D. 66% E. 25% Answer: C. Financial creditors with more than 51% of the debt are able to trigger the new hybrid resolution mechanism.
310. The NAAS policy paper blames which factor for the weak showing of FPOs in India?
A. Too many subsidies B. Lack of irrigation C. Fertilizer shortages D. High export duties E. A small membership base Answer: E. Too few members means FPOs miss out on economies of scale and have less bargaining power.
311. Raghu Rai's in-depth documentation of the Bhopal gas tragedy was done for which organisation?
A. Magnum Photos B. The Statesman C. India Today D. World Press Photo E. Greenpeace Answer: E. He documented the 1984 Bhopal disaster for Greenpeace, producing the book Exposure: A Corporate Crime.
312. Which UN body proclaimed the remembrance day in December 2016?
A. Security Council B. General Assembly C. IAEA Board D. UNEP Assembly E. ECOSOC Answer: B. The UN General Assembly adopted resolution A/RES/71/125 on 8 December 2016.
313. Which window of the SAARC swap framework was used for the Rs 30 billion facility?
A. USD/Euro Swap Window B. Special Drawing Window C. INR Swap Window D. Gold Swap Window E. Yen Swap Window Answer: C. The rupee facility sits in the INR Swap Window.
314. SkyHop Aviation is described as India's first dedicated commercial operator of what?
A. Helicopters B. Seaplanes C. Cargo drones D. Air ambulances E. Gliders Answer: B. It is the first dedicated commercial seaplane operator in India.
315. In which year was Project DANTAK of the BRO established?
A. 1947 B. 1975 C. 1993 D. 1961 Answer: D. It began in April 1961.
316. Per the Knight Frank Wealth Report 2026, what minimum net worth qualifies someone as an Ultra-High Net-Worth Individual (UHNWI)?
A. $10 million B. $20 million C. $30 million D. $50 million E. $100 million Answer: C. The report counts people holding at least $30 million, about ₹283 crore, as UHNWIs.
317. In the Knight Frank Wealth Report, which country stood sixth in the world by UHNWI population in 2026?
A. India B. France C. United Kingdom D. Germany E. Japan Answer: A. With 19,877 UHNWIs in 2026, India took the sixth spot, a sign of fast-growing wealth.
318. India's billionaire count is projected to approach what number by 2031?
A. 250 B. 275 C. 300 D. 350 E. 313 Answer: E. The report expects the figure to climb from 207 in 2026 to 313 in 2031, reflecting robust economic growth.
319. Under which national framework has the NMBA 2.0 App been introduced?
A. National Health Mission B. National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR) C. Digital India Programme D. Ayushman Bharat E. Skill India Mission Answer: B. The app works within NAPDDR, which concentrates on awareness, treatment and rehabilitation in the fight against drug abuse.
320. How is NITI Aayog best classified?
A. A constitutional body B. A statutory body C. A judicial body D. A non-constitutional, non-statutory body E. An autonomous constitutional authority Answer: D. It came into being through a Cabinet Resolution in 2015, and has no basis in the Constitution or in an Act.
321. What will the proposed Index of Service Production (ISP) be used to follow?
A. Yearly farm output B. Industrial production alone C. Export and import data D. How the services sector performs each month E. Inflation trends Answer: D. It is planned as a high-frequency indicator that tracks the monthly output of services.
322. Under RBI's revised NPA norms, what becomes of a borrower's other loans when one loan is in default?
A. Only the defaulted loan turns NPA B. All of that borrower's loans turn into NPAs C. Loans over ₹10 lakh turn NPA D. Other loans stay standard for 180 days E. Only secured loans turn NPA Answer: B. A 'borrower-wise' classification now applies, so default on a single loan puts every loan of the borrower in the NPA category.
323. Under the Expected Credit Loss (ECL) framework, when does provisioning start?
A. From the very day the loan is given B. After 90 days of default C. After 180 days D. Only after NPA classification E. After restructuring Answer: A. ECL looks ahead, so expected losses are estimated right from the beginning of the loan.
324. Which parameter in the ECL framework stands for the chance that a borrower will default?
A. LGD B. EAD C. SICR D. ROE E. PD Answer: E. Probability of Default measures how likely it is that a borrower fails to repay.
325. Which sectors does the 'Orange Economy' mainly centre on?
A. Heavy industries B. Agriculture C. Creative industries and intellectual property D. Mining E. Energy production Answer: C. The concept stresses creativity, culture and IP-driven areas such as media, gaming, design and digital content.
326. What net worth defines an Ultra-High Net-Worth Individual in the Knight Frank report?
A. $1 million B. $30 million C. $100 million D. $1 billion Answer: B. The report sets the UHNWI bar at $30 million or more.
327. The NMBA 2.0 App is a key part of which national plan on drugs?
A. National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction B. National Mental Health Programme C. Integrated Child Protection Scheme D. National Narcotics Control Policy Answer: A. It works under the NAPDDR umbrella.
328. Who was appointed Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog in the 2026 reconstitution?
A. Arvind Panagariya B. Suman Bery C. Amitabh Kant D. Ashok Kumar Lahiri Answer: D. Ashok Kumar Lahiri, a former Chief Economic Advisor, got the post with Cabinet rank.
329. Which foundation provided 10 rare Urdu texts to jump-start the Urdu Wikisource project?
A. Sahitya Akademi B. UNESCO C. Rekhta Foundation D. National Archives of India Answer: C. Rekhta gave 10 texts; the British Library shared 7.
330. Which body proposed the Index of Service Production with 2024-25 as base year?
A. NITI Aayog B. National Statistics Office C. SEBI D. Finance Commission Answer: B. The NSO proposed the ISP.
331. Which country has announced it is leaving OPEC to chart its own oil production policy?
A. Saudi Arabia B. Qatar C. Kuwait D. Iran E. United Arab Emirates Answer: E. The UAE will quit OPEC from May 1, 2026 so that production follows its own economic and strategic interests.
332. With which country did India sign a Free Trade Agreement in April 2026?
A. Japan B. France C. Canada D. Australia E. New Zealand Answer: E. The deal with New Zealand gives duty-free access on every tariff line and lifts trade, investment and services ties.
333. The NITI Aayog report 'Moving Towards Effective City Government' deals mainly with:
A. Defence strategy B. Climate policy C. Urban governance reforms D. Education reforms E. Rural employment Answer: C. It points to governance problems in cities with over a million people and proposes reforms to build up institutional capacity and services.
334. Which country became a member of the India-led ISA, CDRI and GBA in April 2026?
A. Israel B. Jordan C. UAE D. Egypt E. Saudi Arabia Answer: B. Jordan signed on to these India-led climate and energy groupings to work together on sustainability and clean energy.
335. The Supreme Court placed the 'Right to Safe Road Travel' under which constitutional provision?
A. Article 226 B. Article 21 C. Article 19 D. Article 32 E. Article 14 Answer: B. The Court treated safe road travel as part of the right to life, stressing road safety and accountability.
336. In which Indian state is the $15 billion AI Data Centre Hub being developed?
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Karnataka C. Telangana D. Tamil Nadu E. Gujarat Answer: A. Andhra Pradesh is building the large hub in Visakhapatnam together with Google and partners to strengthen digital infrastructure.
337. The RBI's Expected Credit Loss framework takes the place of which earlier approach?
A. The risk weight model B. The Basel model C. The liquidity coverage model D. The incurred loss model E. The capital adequacy model Answer: D. ECL swaps the incurred loss approach for a forward-looking one that handles NPAs and credit risk better.
338. Which global accounting standard underlies the RBI's Expected Credit Loss framework?
A. GAAP B. IFRS 7 C. IFRS 16 D. IFRS 9 E. Basel III Answer: D. The ECL model follows IFRS 9, which estimates credit losses with a forward-looking method.
339. To which institutions will the ECL framework apply?
A. Public sector banks alone B. NBFCs alone C. All scheduled commercial banks D. Cooperative banks alone E. Private banks alone Answer: C. The RBI extended it to every scheduled commercial bank so that credit risk assessment is standardised.
340. What is the main purpose of the Expected Credit Loss framework?
A. Better forward-looking assessment of risk B. Lowering interest rates C. Promoting digital payments D. Controlling inflation E. Raising bank profits Answer: A. It lets banks foresee likely credit losses early, supporting financial stability and handling of NPAs.
341. Barkha Subba won a 2026 Whitley Award for conserving which species?
A. Snow leopard B. Red panda C. Himalayan salamander D. Ganges river dolphin E. Hangul Answer: C. Her project covers the conservation of the Himalayan salamander and its wetlands.
342. Which set of areas does Mission SAKSHAM training focus on?
A. Marketing, branding and sales B. Agriculture, mining and textiles C. Governance, risk, compliance and IT D. Foreign exchange and bullion E. Insurance and pensions Answer: C. The training covers governance, risk, compliance and IT.
343. Which two countries share COP31 leadership responsibilities?
A. Germany and Turkiye B. Brazil and Azerbaijan C. UAE and Australia D. Turkiye and Australia Answer: D. Turkiye is host and Australia is President of Negotiations.
344. Under the India-New Zealand FTA, what share of Indian goods will enter New Zealand duty-free?
A. 80% B. 95% C. 100% D. 50% Answer: C. New Zealand will remove tariffs on 100% of Indian goods.
345. What rank does India hold in global military spending as per the SIPRI 2025 data?
A. 3rd B. 4th C. 5th D. 6th Answer: C. India is the fifth-largest spender at $92.1 billion.
346. For which state's 50th Statehood celebrations did PM Narendra Modi recently travel?
A. Sikkim B. Meghalaya C. Manipur D. Arunachal Pradesh E. Assam Answer: A. He attended the 50-year statehood events in Sikkim and opened major infrastructure projects valued at ₹4000 crore.
347. Which area is the Swarnajayanti Maitri Manjari Park, recently in the news, connected with?
A. Defence training B. A tribal culture museum C. Solar energy research D. Wildlife conservation E. Orchid biodiversity Answer: E. Located in Gangtok, the park serves as an Orchid Experience Centre displaying Sikkim's rich flora.
348. What makes the Population Census 2026 in India noteworthy?
A. RBI conducts it B. It engages more than 3 million officials C. It takes place every five years D. It leaves out rural areas E. It is the first purely digital census Answer: B. It ranks among the biggest data-gathering exercises in the world, with over 3 million officials taking part.
349. Under which organisation does the Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL) function?
A. Ministry of Shipping B. HAL C. Indian Navy D. DRDO E. ISRO Answer: D. NSTL is a leading DRDO laboratory working on naval technologies, including hydrodynamic testing.
350. Which fintech company did Punjab National Bank (PNB) team up with to bring out a RuPay credit card?
A. BharatPe B. PhonePe C. Paytm D. Kiwi E. Razorpay Answer: D. PNB joined hands with the fintech firm Kiwi for the 'PNB Kiwi Credit Card' on the RuPay network.
351. On which payment network does the 'PNB Kiwi Credit Card' run?
A. Discover B. RuPay C. American Express D. Mastercard E. Visa Answer: B. It uses India's home-grown RuPay network, in order to encourage digital payments and financial inclusion.
352. The Finance Ministry set up a high-level panel to examine the risks posed by which AI platform?
A. Mythos B. Samarth AI C. Bharat AI D. Gemini E. ChatGPT Answer: A. The panel was formed to weigh risks linked to 'Mythos', reflecting rising worry about how AI should be regulated.
353. What is the main aim of the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana?
A. Giving education loans B. Funding large industries C. Supporting agricultural subsidies D. Giving housing loans E. Advancing financial inclusion for micro enterprises Answer: E. PMMY extends loans without collateral to micro and small businesses, encouraging entrepreneurship and inclusion.
354. Which body implements the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI)?
A. NITI Aayog B. Ministry of Rural Development C. Ministry of Food Processing Industries D. Ministry of Commerce E. Ministry of Agriculture Answer: C. The scheme is run to strengthen India's food processing sector and make Indian brands more competitive worldwide.
355. Roughly how much investment has the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI) crossed?
A. ₹12,000 crore B. ₹7,000 crore C. ₹9,000 crore D. ₹5,000 crore E. ₹3,000 crore Answer: C. Investment went past the committed target of ₹7,000 crore to more than ₹9,000 crore, showing strong participation by industry.
356. For how many years is Global Geopark status granted before revalidation?
A. Two B. Three C. Five D. Four E. Ten Answer: D. Status is granted for four years, after which sites are revalidated.
357. Which of these is NOT among the five founding members of OPEC in 1960?
A. Iran B. Iraq C. Kuwait D. Venezuela E. United Arab Emirates Answer: E. The founders were Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela; the UAE joined in 1967.
358. Who notified the five new districts of Ladakh?
A. President of India B. Union Home Minister C. LG Vinai Kumar Saxena D. Chief Secretary of Ladakh E. Chief Justice of Ladakh Answer: C. Lieutenant Governor Vinai Kumar Saxena notified them.
359. What is the median OOPE for outpatient care in public facilities per the NSO 80th round?
A. Rs 1,100 B. Rs 500 C. Zero D. Rs 11,285 Answer: C. The median outpatient OOPE in public facilities is zero.
360. Which country's flex-fuel vehicle experience is India using as a reference for E100?
A. USA B. Brazil C. Germany D. Indonesia Answer: B. Brazil has had flex-fuel vehicles since 2003.